Consider the statements about Mathura Art and select the correct ones.
The earliest images of Buddha, Bodhisatva, and Brahmanical dieties were made at Mathura.
Buddha has kept his right hand in Abhay Mudra in majority of sculpture.
Mathura act has theme of all the religions viz, Buddhism, Jainism and Brahmanism.
They used red sandstone in majority of Art.
Codes:
2
Match the following:
Scientific Literature
Author
A. Brihat Samhita
1. Varahmihir
B. Siddhant Shiromani
2. Bhaskaracharya
C. Surya Siddhanta
3. Aryabhatta
D. Sulva Sutra
4. Baudhayan
Codes:
A B C D
3
Match the following:
Name of book
Related to.
A. Lalitavistara
1. Biography of Buddha.
B. Udana
2. The story of “Blind men and Elephant”.
C. Vinaya Pitaka
3. Monastic rules for monks.
D. Abhidhamma
4. Philosophy and Pitaka doctrine of Buddhism.
A B C D
4
Consider the following personalities:
Kalidas
Dhanvantari
Varahamihira
Banabhatta.
Who among the above was/were included in Navratnas of Chandragupta Vikramaditya?
Codes:
5
Megasthenes divided Indian society into :
6
Which among these is wrongly matched?
Coin - Element
7
Which among the following is / are works of Kalidasa?
Ritusamhara
Meghaduta
Malavikagnimitra
Kumarashambhava
Abhijnana Sakuntalam
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
8
Bhojyanna were
9
Consider the following statements about Sangam literature:
Sangam literature can be described into two types viz. Agam (inner) and Puram (outer).
The topics of Agam are related to personal and human aspects such as love and sexual things.
The topics of Puram are related to human experiences and emotions such as Heroism, Valour, Ethics and Philanthropy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
10
Which of the following statements regarding Society as mentioned in Sangam Texts is/are correct?
Early Tamil people were primarily pastoral and traces of megalithic life appear in the Sangam texts.
The State formation was in rudimentary state and war booty was an important source of livelihood.
Codes:
11
Kashyapashilpa is–
12
The term Nadukal mentioned in the Sangam literature—
13
What is/are true for Seated Buddha, Katra mound, Mathura?
The Buddha is seated on a lotus throne.
Presence of images of the Padmapani and Vajrapani Boddhisattvas.
It is a sculpture from Saka Period at Mathura.
It represents Dhamma Chakra Pravartan.
Select the correct option:
14
Who built the Shore temples at Mahabalipuram?
15
Which ruler built the Sun temple at Konark?
16
Which of the following are examples of Bharhut sculptures?
Images of Yaksha and Yakhshini in the Mauryan period.
Modelling of the sculptural volume in low relief maintaining linearity.
Images stick to the picture plane.
Illusion of three-dimensionality in the relief panels.
Select the correct option:
17
Which of the following are kinds of shrines of the temples?
Sandhara
Nirandhara
Sarvatobhadra
Amrutdhara
Select the correct option:
18
Which of the following are rock-cut cave sites?
Guntapalle, near Eluru
Anakapalle near Vishakhapatanam
Sannati, Karnataka
Rampaerrampallam
Select the correct option:
19
Which of the following is/are true for Elephanta caves?
20
What is/are true for stupas at Sanchi?
It is presumed to have relics of the Buddha
It has relics of ten less famous Arhats belonging to three different generations
It has the relics of Sariputta and Mahamougalayana.
Select the correct option:
21
What is/are true for Mara Vijaya?
The theme of Mara Vijaya has been painted in the caves of Ellora.
It is sculpted near the colossal Buddha image of enlightenment.
Mara represents desire.
Select the correct option:
22
The temples of Brihadeswara at Thanjavur and Darasuram were built during the reign of which kingdom?
23
The Nayaka paintings depict episodes from
24
Which forms an analogy like Nagara:Dravida?
25
What are the sub-types of Nagara temples?
Latina
Phamsana
Valabhi
Kalasha
Select the correct option:
26
What is/are true for the temple at Deogarh in Lalitpur District, Uttar Pradesh?
This temple was built in the early sixth century CE.
This temple is in the panchayatana style of architecture.
This is a west-facing temple.
Select the correct option:
27
What is Gajendramoksha?
28
Which of the following is/are true for Lakshamana temple?
It is a temple of Khajuraho.
The temple is dedicated to Shiva.
It was built by the Chandela king.
Select the correct option:
29
Which of the following is/are true for South Indian Temple Style?
It is enclosed within a compound wall.
The main temple tower takes the shape of a curving shikhara.
At the entrance, it would be usual to find images such as Mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna.
The multiple shikharas rise together as a cluster.
Select the correct option:
30
What is the subject of temples at Mamallapuram?
Arjuna's Penance which is a story from the Mahabharata of how Arjuna, one of the Pandava brothers, performed severe austerities in order to obtain Shiva's weapon.
The sage Bhagiratha performs austerities in order to bring the Ganges down to earth. Shiva had to consent to break her fall in his hair, because otherwise its force would be too great for the earth to contain.
Select the correct option:
31
Identify the correct match:
1. Kalhan
Rajatarangini
2. Kalidasa
Ashtadhyayi
3. Vatsyayana
Mricchakatika
4. Ashvaghosha
Geet Govinda
Select the correct option:
32
Mithila painting is traditional art of which region?
33
The basic scale of Indian music is heptatonic. Which of the following are the notes associated with it?
Gandhara
Nishada
Panchama
Sadja
Select the correct option:
34
Sculpture making was developed in India from ancient times. Many schools of sculpture making developed in India. Which of the following statements are correct in context of above?
Lost wax technique was used to make bronze sculptures in Indus Valley Civilisation.
Sarnath school is a school of sculpture making.
Mostly white marbles were used in Gandhara school of sculpture making.
Nagarjunakonda was as important centre associated with Amravati school of sculpture making.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
35
Consider the following statements in context of ancient Indian History.
Sarthvaha were the caravan leader who were associated with administration of district.
Pustpalas were the officials whose work was to manage & keep records.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
36
Ghati Yantras mentioned in Indian History is related with.
37
The famous ‘Uttaramerur’ inscription of South India is related with which of the following:
Consider these statements regarding ‘Mahajanpadas:
Ancient Buddhist texts like Anguttara Nikaya make frequent reference to sixteen great kingdoms and republics (Solas Mahajanapadas).
Mahajanpadas had evolved and flourished in a belt stretching from Gandhara in the northwest to Anga in the eastern part of the Indian subcontinent and included parts of the trans-Vindhyan region.
Each of these Janapadas was named after the Kshatriya tribe (or the Kshatriya Jana) who had settled therein.
The first Buddhist Council was held in Pataliputra, capital of Magadha Mahajanpad.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2
Consider the following statements about Rigveda:
The oldest Veda is the Rigveda, composed about 3500 years ago.
The Rigveda includes thousand hymns, called sukta or “well-said”.
These hymns are in praise of various gods and goddesses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
3
Which of the following statements regarding Rig Vedic Gods is/are correct?
Female Gods were as prominent as Male Gods during Rig Vedic Period.
Aditi and Usha who represented the appearance of the dawn were female divinities of this period.
Codes:
4
Consider the following statements about the taxes in Mahajanapadas:
Taxes on crops was the most important.
There were taxes on craftpersons, as well.
Herders were also expected to pay taxes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
5
Consider the following statements about changes that took place in agriculture during mahajanapadas:
Transplanting paddy was not yet started.
There was a growing use of iron ploughshares.
There was an increase in production of paddy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
6
Consider the following statements:
Carvaka or Lokyata philosophy is characterized as a materialistic and atheistic school of thought.
It is classified as an orthodox school of Hindu philosophy.
Carvaka rejected religious conceptions like afterlife, reincarnation, religious rites, etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
7
Consider the following statements:
Samkhya is an enumerationist philosophy of Hinduism.
The founder of the Samkhya school of Philosophy was Maharishi Kapil.
It depicts highest believe in Ishwara or God.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
8
Consider the following statements about Jainism:
Jainism encourages spiritual independence and self-control.
Anekantavada is one of the principles of Jainism.
Syadvada is also one of the principles of Jainism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
9
Consider the following statements:
Vajji Mahajanapada was under a different form of government than Magadha, known as gana or sangha.
In a gana or a sangha there was not one, but many rulers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10
Consider the given statements about the polity and administration in the Rigvedic period:
Government was patriarchal in nature. Monarchy was normal, but non monarchical polities were also there.
The Purohita or domestic priest was the first ranking official.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
11
Consider the given statements about the society in the Rigvedic period:
The classification of society was based on the professions or occupations of the individuals.
The vocations were followed by persons according to their ability and liking.
The occupations were not hereditary.
The meat of animals, birds and fish was eaten.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
12
Consider the given statements about the Rigvedic period:
Money and markets were known but they were not very extensively used.
Coins were not known.
Cows and gold ornaments of fixed value were the media of exchange.
The art of healing wounds and curing diseases were in existence. There were experts in surgery.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
13
Consider the given statements about the Vedas:
Rigveda is known as the first testament of the mankind as it is the oldest text in the world.
Samaveda is related with the Indian music.
Vedic literature is called as Shruti.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
14
Consider the given statements about Religious worship in early Vedic period:
The Shiva-Shakti worship, the oldest form of worship in India, appears to have been part of religious belief of Harappan people.
Zoolatory and tree worship were also in vogue during Vedic period.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
15
Which of the following dynasty is not associated with the Magadha Empire?
16
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the early Vedic or Rig Vedic people?
Image worship was predominant part of Rig Vedic religion.
Rig Vedic people were majorly agriculturalist living in rural & urban settlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
17
With reference to the difference between Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley civilization, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Indus civilization was based on agriculture & trade while Rig Vedic Aryans were majorly pastoralists.
Indus civilization had many cities while Rig Vedic people could not reach urban level of development in general.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements related to Indus Valley Civilization:
Leg bone of elephant was found at Kalibangan.
Surkotada is the only site where the remains of a horse have actually been found.
Copper rhino, copper chariot and copper elephant have been found at Lothal.
Salt production centre was founded at Padri.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2
Consider the following statements in relation to Harappan Civilization:
Sacrifices may have been performed at cities, such as Kalibangan and Lothal.
Some cities like Mohenjodaro, Harappa had elaborate store houses.
Iron was used to make tools, weapons, ornaments and vessels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
3
Match the following:
Name of grain
Site (found at)
A. Rice
1. Koldihwa
B. Lentil
2. Gufkral
C. Barley
3. Chirand
D. Millet
4. Hallur
A B C D
4
Consider the following statements:
The Harappans grew wheat, barley, pulses, peas, rice, sesame, linseed and mustard.
Irrigation system was completely absent in Harappan civilization.
The Harappans reared cattle, sheep, goats and buffaloes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
5
Which among these animal are not depicted in Pasupati seal of Mohan Jodaro?
6
Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
The Harappan people didn’t use cotton for clothes.
The Harappans wore long tunics.
They were aware of the embroidered cloth.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
7
Which of the following statements regarding Harappan civilization is/are correct?
Canals and wells were used for irrigation during Harappan civilization.
The distinctive pottery and standardised weight system of Harappan civilization was prevalent even after the decline of Harappan civilization.
Codes:
8
Now more than 1400 sites belonging to Indus (Harappan) civilization have been excavated. Four outposts of the Harappan civilization are:
9
Which of the following statements about Harappa Culture or Indus valley civilization is/are incorrect?
The cultural practices of this civilization have survived the onslaught of time and still act as edifice upon which the foundations of Indian society rests.
On deciphering Harappan script, the historians opined that there exists a relation between Sanskrit and Harappan script and also Harappan Script have remarkably contributed to the literature development in those times.
Presence of granaries, seals, regulated weights etc. indicates towards importance of trade in the Indus valley civilization.
Choose the correct option
10
Consider the following statements:
Trade was the major occupation of the people of the Harappan Civilization.
The sewerage and drainage system found in the each and every city of Indus Valley.
Early Harappan phase stands characterized by centralized authority and an increasingly urban quality of life.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
11
Which one of the following important trade centres of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi ?
12
Consider the following statements about the cities of Indus valley civilization:
Ropar is the northern-most site of Indus valley civilization.
Daimabad is the southern-most site of Indus valley civilization.
Alamgirpur is the eastern-most site of Indus valley civilization.
Sutkagendor is the western most site of Indus valley civilization.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
13
Which of the following were the port cities during Indus valley civilization?
Lothal
Sutkagendor
Allahdino
Balakot
Kuntasi
Select the correct option:
14
Consider the given statements:
Great grannary and Great Bath were located at Harappa.
Seal and clay figure of Mother-Goddess was found at Mohenjodaro.
Which of the given statement(s) is /are correct?
15
The common features of most of the Indus valley sites were:
Systematic town-planning on the lines of ‘grid system’.
Use of bricks in construction.
Underground drainage system.
Fortified citadel.
Select the correct option:
16
Consider the given statements about Indus valley civilization:
Harappan were the earliest people to produce cotton.
Coins were used for exchange of material and goods.
Indus valley civilization was primarily urban.
Iron was known to Indus valley people.
Select the correct code:
17
Consider the given statements about Indus valley civilization:
Humpless bull is represented in most of the Indus seals.
Steatite was mainly used in the manufacture of seals.
Inhumation was the most common method of disposal of dead.
The most commonly found figurine is of Mother-Goddess.
Select the correct code:
18
Consider the following statements about Pashupati Mahadeva:
Pashupati Mahadeva is considered as the lord of animals represented in seals as sitting in yogic posture.
In the seal he is surrounded by four animals elephant, tiger, rhino and horse.
Which of the given statement(s) is /are correct?
19
The terms Apaurasheya and Nitya are associated with:
20
Which of the following was a dockyard in Harappan civilization?
21
Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
The Harappan people didn’t use cotton for clothes.
The Harappans wore long tunics.
They were aware of the embroidered cloth.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
22
Which of the following statements about Indus valley civilization is correct?
Historians called this civilization also as the Harappa culture as Harappa is the first discovered and is the largest site of this civilization.
The western most extent of this civilization reaches to Afghanistan and the southern most extent goes up to Karnataka.
Choose the correct option;
23
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the findings about the Harappan culture?
Their food habit encompasses both Veg and Non-Veg, and rice was the dominant cereal of their meal
Multiple cropping was used as a cropping pattern
Traces of socio-economic differences can be found in this culture, from the study of burial practices, artefacts etc.
Choose the correct option:
24
Match the following Harappan culture sites with their key feature:
Site
Feature
1. Mohanjodaro
i. Rice
2. Chanhudaro
ii. Urbanization
3. Lothal
iii. Ploughed field
4. Kalibangan
iv. Craft Production
Choose the correct match:
25
Match the following
Cultures
Location of Flourishing
1. Harappan culture
i. Middle Gangetic Basin
2. Vedic culture
ii. West Gangetic Basin
3. Post-Vedic
iii. Indus valley
Choose the Correct option:
26
The most frequently depicted animal on the Harappan seal is:
27
Consider the following statements:
Harappans enjoyed trade relations with Mesopotamia
From Dholavira site, a chariot was found
Choose the correct statement/s:
28
Harappan Civilization was one of the most advanced civilization of the world in its contemporary period. Which of the following were used by Harappan?
Silver
Copper
Tin
Bronze
Stone tools
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
29
Regarding Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements.
It was predominantly an urbanized civilization where majority of population lived at urban centers.
During this period cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Kanishka is renowned in Buddhist tradition for having convened a great Buddhist council in Kashmir.
Kanishka also had the original Gandhari vernacular, or Prakrit, Buddhist texts translated into the language of Vedic (chaste) Sanskrit.
Along with the Indian emperors Ashoka and Harsha Vardhana and the Indo-Greek king Menander I (Milinda), Kanishka is considered by Buddhism as one of its greatest benefactors.
Kanishka is said to have been particularly close to the Buddhist scholar Mahakshyapa, who became his religious advisor in his later years.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
2
Consider the following statements about the changes that occurred in Buddhism during the reign of Kushana ruler Kanishka:
A new form of Buddhism, known as Mahayana Buddhism, was developed.
Making of statues of the Buddha had started.
Belief in Bodhisattvas was started.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
3
Which kingdom issued the largest number of gold coins?
4
Which of the following is/are true for Sandrakottas?
Contemporary of Alexander
Identified with Chandragupta Maurya
Megasthenes mentions him in ‘Indika’
Select the correct option:
5
Consider the following statements:
Rudraman, the most famous Kushana ruler is credited with the construction of Sudarshana lake
Gautami-puta Siri-Satkarni, the famous Satvahana ruler, ensured rigidity in social practices manifested through prohibition of inter-varna marriage.
The term 'Shrenis' were used to refer to classification of varna on the basis of common occupation or profession.
Kalpasatru is a Jaina version of which of the following texts?
2
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
Zen Buddhism is a form of Buddhism in China, Korea and Japan that lays special emphasis on meditation.
Zen Buddhism places much more emphasis on scriptures than some other forms of Buddhism.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements:
Jainism believes that life is both endless and subject to impermanence, suffering and uncertainty. These states are called the tilakhana, or the three signs of existence.
According to the Buddhism liberation is achieved by eliminating all karma from the soul.
Select the correct answer from below:
4
Consider the following statements in the context of Buddhism:
Hinayana is the more orthodox and conservative school of Buddhism which is believed to be more close to the advaitic tradition of Hinduism.
Mahayana is the more advanced and modern school of Buddhism which is believed to be closer to the Dvaita tradition of the Puranic Hinduism.
Vajrayana is the Tantric tradition in Buddhism which originated in Tibet and eastern parts of India and drew inspiration from the occultist traditions of Vedic Hinduism.
Which of the above statements are correct?
5
Consider the following statements about Shankara, one of the most influential philosophers of India:
He was an advocate of Advaita.
He advocated that Brahman, the only or Ultimate Reality, was formless and without any attributes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
6
Which among these literacture represent the transition between Karmamarga (Way of Rituals) and Gyanmarg (Way of Knowledge)?
7
Which among these is wrongly matched :
8
Jatak is the part of which Pitak?
9
Who among the following has been considered a Lady Tirthankar in the Shvetambar tradition?
10
Which of the following is not true about Buddha?
11
Which among these is one of the basic philosophy of Buddhism?
12
Match the followings :
(A)
(B)
A. Susruta
1. Medicine
B. Nagarjuna
2. Surgery
C. Brahmagupta
3. Philosophy
D. Charaka
4. Mathematics
Code:
A B C D
13
Many of Greek, Kushanas, Sakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because :
14
Who composed Buddhacharita?
15
Choose the correct statements :
With a view to popularising and propagating the doctrines of Mahayan Buddhism, Harsha arrange a big assembly at Prayag.
Another assembly at Kannauj was organised for distributing gifts to public.
Code:
16
Which of the following is a part of Buddhist philosophy?
17
Who among the following believe in the philosophy of rebirth?
Bhagvatas
Lokayatas
Kalamukhas
Vedantics
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
18
Consider the following statements:
Manusmriti contains the earliest reference to untouchables referred to as Chandalas.
Dharmasastras deals with social rules and regulations.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
19
Consider the following statements about Mima-msa philosophy:
The poorva Mimamsa was postulated by Jamini.
The ideology of Poorva Mimamsa was to counteract the challenge by Buddhism and vedanta which marginalized the Vedic sacrifices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
20
Match the following:
List I (Religion)
List II (Place of origin)
A. Judaism
I. Iran
B. Shinto
II. China
C. Taoism
III. Japan
D. Zoroastrianism
IV. Palestine
Codes:
21
Which of the following statements regarding Buddhist texts are correct?
The Buddhist texts Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa which were written in Sri Lanka contain regional histories of Buddhism.
Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka include Buddha’s teachings and rules and regulation for those who joined the monastic order, respectively.
Abhidhamma Pitaka deals with the philoso-phical matters of Buddhism.
Codes:
22
Indian schools of philosophy are classified as orthodox and unorthodox systems. On what basis such a classification is made?
23
Consider the following statements about Tantricism.
24
Purtadharma was-
25
Which of the following is/are correct?
26
Assertion (A): Mahayana form of Buddhism dominated in first century AD.
Reason (R): Kanishka extended his whole-hearted patronage to Buddhism.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
27
Nagarjuna’s Shunyavada is expounded in—
28
Biographies of Jaina Tirthankaras are found in—
29
What was considered as Varna Samkara?
30
Which of the following were important characteristics of early Bhagavatism?
Devotion
Action
Knowledge
Social rigidity
Self-sacrifice (Tyaga)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
31
In reference to the Hindu philosophy, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
32
Mahayana Buddhism is distinct from old form of Buddhism in which of the following -
Sculpture of Buddha using certain signs instead of statues of Buddha.
Bodhisattavas started remaining in world to teach and help other people instead of going into complete isolation and meditate in peace.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
33
Which one of the following statements is correct?
34
Jainism prescribes a path to liberation which consists of the three jewels (trinity or ratna-traya) except:
35
Which one of the following statements is correct?
36
In context of Buddhism which of the following statement(s) stand NOT true?
According to Buddha, Avidya is the root cause of Suffering.
Mahayana sect considers Buddha as Man and gives his teaching ethical values.
Theravada sect is precursor of Hinayan tradition and has essentially disappeared today.
Pali is the canonical language of Buddhist scriptures.
Buddha summarized his metaphysical teachings in the four noble truths.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
37
Which of the following is NOT a part of six schools of Indian philosophy:
38
Consider the following pairs of the schools of Indian philosophy and their founders:
Sankhya - Sage Kapila
Yoga - Patanjali
Nyaya - Akshapada Gautam
Miminsa - Jamini
Which of the given pairs are correctly matched?
39
Consider the following statements about causes of religious movements:
The Vedic philosophy has lost its original purity.
Supremacy of Brahmans created unrest in the society
Kshatriya reacted against Brahmanical domination.
Introduction of new agriculture economy in eastern India.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
40
Consider the given events of Buddha’s life and the symbols associated with it:
Janma: Lotus
Renunciation: Horse
Enlightenment: Bodhi tree
Death: Wheel
Which of the given pairs are correctly matched?
41
Consider the following pairs related to the Buddhist Literature?
Sutta Pitaka: Buddha’s saying.
Vinay Pitaka: Monastic code.
Abhidhamma Pitaka: Religious discourse of Buddha.
Which of the given pairs are correctly matched?
42
Consider the following features of a sect of Buddhism:
Followers believed in original teachings of Buddha.
Follwers sought individual salvation through self discipline and meditation.
It is known as Southern Buddhist Religion.
They did not pursue idol worship.
Identify the sect:
43
Which of the following are Triratna of Jainism:
Right Faith
Right Knowledge
Right Conduct
Right Action
Right Livelihood
Select the correct option:
44
Match the following pairs:
1. First Buddhist Council
(i) Vaishali
2. Second Buddhist Council
(ii) Patliputra
3. Third Buddhist Council
(iii) Kashmir
4. Fourth Buddhist Council
(iv) Rajgriha
Select the correct option:
45
Consider the following statements about the Buddhists councils:
During the fourth Buddhist Council, Buddhism was divided into two sects Hinyana and Mahayana.
During third Buddhists Council, decision was taken to send missionaries to various part of the world.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
46
Which of the following comprises vows of Jainism?
Ahimsa
Satya
Asteya
Aparigraha
Brahmacharya
Select the correct option:
47
Where is Lomus Rishi cave located?
48
Which of the following are places where stupas were constructed over the relics of the Buddha?
Rajagraha
Allakappa
Ramagrama
Vethadipa
Pippalvina
Select the correct option:
49
Which of the following is/are true for eight fold path preached by Buddhism?
Right Conduct
Right Understanding
Right Speach
Select the correct option:
50
What are the four distinct stages of Chaturashrama system?
Shudras
Brahamanas
Kshatriyas
Vaishyas
Select the correct option:
51
Which of the following temples are in Odisha?
Parsvanath temple
Lingaraja temple
Jagannatha temple
Visvanatha temple
Select the correct option:
52
Which of the following is/are true for monolithic statue of Gommateshwara Bhagawan Bahubali ?
It is located in Gangaikonda cholapuram.
It was built during rule of Ganga dynasty
Select the correct option:
53
Who is the Hathigumpha inscription related to?
54
Which of the following is/are true for Mahayana?
Continuation with earlier practices of Buddhism.
Received royal patronage of Kanishka.
Mahavastu is the literary material related to Mahayana.
Select the correct option:
55
Which school deals with materialistic philosophy?
56
Identify the correct match:
1. Koodiyattam
Kerala
2. Kalbelia
Rajasthan
3. Sankirtana
Manipur
4. Mudiyett
Kerala
Select the correct option:
57
Which of the following is a part of Buddhist philosophy?
58
Consider the following statements:
Manusmriti contains the earliest reference to untouchables referred to as Chandalas.
Dharmasastras deals with social rules and regulations.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
59
Consider the following statements about Mahayana Buddhism:
It treated Buddha as God.
It adopted Pali as the language for its literature.
Which of the above statement/s is/are NOT true?
60
Jainism and Buddhism share several common tenets. Identify the similar threads running in their religious philospohies.
Both avoid extremity of indulgence and austerity
Both deny the authority of Vedic literature
Select the correct statement/s using the codes given below:
61
Buddhism is based on the four Noble Truths. Which of the following is not one of the Noble Truths?
62
Yaksha and Yakshni are part of the art of which of the following religions?
Buddhism
Jainism
Brahminism
Choose the correct option using the code given below:
63
Consider the following statements:
Some of the oldest Buddhists texts were written in language of masses i.e. Pali and Prakrit, as the system grew in opposition to Brahmanical-Sanskritic traditions.
Buddhist expansion to other regions led to the emergence of some other texts such as Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa.
Choose the correct statement:
64
Consider the following statements:
The Jatakas, written in Pali, are used by the historians to account for the thoughts and experiences of the Kings, to know what they thought about their subjects.
Gandatindu Jataka describes the strategies adopted by the Kings to influence their subjects and mould their opinion
Choose the correct statements:
65
Match the following;
Pitaka
Core concept
1. Vinay Pitaka
i. Philosophical matters
2. Sutta Pitaka
ii. Rules and regulations for the Sangha
3. Abhidhamma
iii. Buddha's teaching Pitaka
Choose the correct option:
66
Consider the following statements:
Although Mahavira was preceded by 23 tirthankars, but he is credited with the foundation and propogations of basic Jaina philosophy
Principle of Ahimsa is at the core of Jaina philosophy
Jaina literatures were found in Pali, Prakrit and Tamil language.
Choose the correct statement:
67
Consider the following statements:
During the lifetime of Buddha, all his teachings were compiled by his disciples at the council held at Veshali, known as Tipitaka
Tipitaka consist of Vinaypitaka, Sutta pitaka and Abhidhamma pitaka
Choose the correct statement:
68
Consider the following statements:
Indian thinkers such as Buddha and Mahavira questioned the authority of the Vedas and consequently established there system of thought leading to garnering of followers in large numbers.
Both Buddhism and Jainism denied the existence of god
Which amongst these statements is incorrect?
69
Consider the following statements:
Bhakti tradition in India is classified into Astika and Nastika
Bhakti tradition provided a ray of hope for liberation to those considered ineligible by Brahmanical traditions
Choose the correct statements:
70
Consider the following statements:
Tantric practices are associated with worship of goddesses
Followers of tantric practices were not discriminated on the basis of caste or gender
These practices were prevalent in north and north-western India
Ideas of Tantric system influenced both Shaivism and Buddhism
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
71
Consider the following statements:
The growth and popularity of Bhakti movement can be attributed to their egalitarian practices
Sankara’s philosophy curbed the growth of Jainism and Buddhism
Choose the correct statement:
72
Which of the following is not a philosophical doctrine related to Buddhism?
73
Consider the following statements:
Buddhism served as a link between Indo-Asian relation
India learnt Sericulture from China
Choose the incorrect statement:
74
Shad darshan, the six system of Indian Philosophy forms the base of Indian philosophy. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Sankhya Darshana - Jaimini
Yoga Darshana - Patanjali
Nyaya Darshana – Kapila
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
75
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Buddhism & Jainism?
Gautam Buddha founded Mahayana Buddhism.
Mahavir founded Jainism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
76
Vigyanvada or Yogachar and Madhyamaka or Madhyamikavada are the sects associated with which of the following?
77
Niyativad is a philosophy according to which every matter in the world is predetermined and controlled by destiny/fate. This was the core philosophy of which of the following sect?
Roman and Greek traders frequented the ancient Tamil country and Sri Lanka, securing trade with the seafaring Tamil states of the Chola, Pandyan and Chera dynasties and establishing trading settlements which secured trade with India by the Greco-Roman world since the time of the Ptolemaic dynasty.
The Rome-India trade also saw several cultural exchanges which had lasting effect for both the civilizations and others involved in the trade. The Egyptian kingdom of Aksum was involved in the Indian Ocean trade network and was influenced by Roman culture and Indian architecture. Traces of Indian influences are visible in Roman works of silver and ivory, or in Egyptian cotton and silk fabrics.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Aihole inscription is related to Pulakesin II of the Chalukya Dynasty.
Pallavas initiated the Dravida style of temple architecture.
The founder of the Chalukyas of Vatapi was Jayasimha.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements regarding the Vijayanagar Empire:
The Vijayanagara Empire was an empire based in South India, in the Deccan Plateau region. It was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka I of the Sangam Dynasty.
It lasted until 1646 although its power declined after a major military defeat in 1565 by the Deccan sultanates.
The empire is named after its capital city of Vijayanagara, whose ruins surround present day Hampi, now a World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements is/are false?
4
Consider the following statements about Chalukyas of Badami:
Aihole inscription is the most important source of history of the Chalukyas Dynasty.
Chalukya era was an important period in the development of South Indian architecture.
The Royal Emblem of Chalukyas of Badami was “Varaha”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
5
Consider the following statements about Chola Dynasty:
Sangam Literature is the most important source of history of the Chola Dynasty.
Pillars of Asoka are also an important source of Chola’s history.
In the “Battle of Venni” both the Pandyas and Cheras were defeated by the Cholas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
6
Consider the following statements:
Sangam literature deals with emotional and material topics such as love, war, governance, trade and bereavement.
Sangam Poems fall into two categories the ‘inner field’ and the ‘outer field’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
7
Match the following names with categories of land mention in Chola inscriptions:
Name given
Types of land
A. Vellanvagai
1. Land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors.
B. Shalabhoga
2. Land gifted to temples.
C. Tirunamattukkani
3. Land for the maintenance of a school.
D. Pallichchhandamn
4. Land donated to Jaina institutions.
A B C D
8
“Uttaramerur Inscription” gives us inform about:
9
Which of the following is correct about Chola taxation system?
10
Consider the following aspects of Chola administration. Which of the following is correct?
11
Which of the following are matched correctly?
Sabha - assembly of Brahmin landowners.
Ur - village assembly found in areas where landowners were non-Brahmins.
Nagaram - merchant organizations
Select the correct answer from the code(s) given below:
12
Which of the following is correctly matched?
vellalar – large landowners.
Uzhavar – ordinary ploughmen.
kadaisiyar – landless labourers including slaves
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
13
Grambhojakas were
14
Consider the following statement about the Chola empire:
The Cholas maintained large army consisting of elephants, cavalry, and infantry and a strong navy as well
The Chola empire was divided into Mandalams
Chola empire had economic relations with other countries as well
Local self government existed in this empire
Choose the correct option:
15
In which of the following regions Hoysala monuments are found?
16
Which of the following is TRUE about Sangam society?
Brahmanas appeared for the first time in south India.
People believed in good and bad omens.
The widows enjoyed great respect in society.
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
17
Consider the following statements about Sangam literature.
Tolkappiyam, the early Tamil grammar was written during first Sangam.
Sangam literature is primarily secular, dealing with everyday themes in a Tamilakam context.
Sangam Poems falls into two categories: the ‘inner field’ and the ‘outer field’.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are CORRECT?
18
The title of ‘Adivraha’ was adopted by which of the following rulers?
19
Sthala Mahatmyas were used to refer to:
20
Sangam period is very important for the history of South India. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
Kural - Tiruvalluvar
Silappadikaram - Illango Adigal
Manimekalai – Tiruttakrdeva
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
21
Consider the following statements in context of history of Tamil Region.
Kurinji is hilly region
Marutam wetland having practice of plough Agriculture
Kuchipudi is one of the classical dance forms of the South India and derives its name from the Kuchipudi village of Andhra Pradesh.
Carrying a fine combination of Natya, Nritta and Nritya, Kuchipudi was never a solo affair and required a number of performers.
In modern times the Kuchipudi dance is considerably different than it originally used to be. Most of the performances are solo, done by female dancers.
Select the correct answer code from below:
2
Which of the following statements related to the classical dance Mohiniattam are true?
Mohiniattam is a solo female dance (in a single costume), where musical melody and the rhythmical swaying of the dancer from side to side and the smooth and unbroken flow of the body movement is the striking feature.
The credit for reviving the Mohiniattam dance in the nineteenth century goes to Swati Tirunal, the king of Travancore.
The performers of Mohiniattam dance usually wear a brown colored sari with silver borders.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements:
Koodiyattam, the Malayalam theatre tradition of Kerala, India has been declared as among the ‘Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity’ by UNESCO.
It is for the first time that UNESCO has selected art forms from across the world to bestow recognition as part of its effort to safeguard expressions of oral heritage and traditional culture.
Select the answer from the code given below:
4
A typical recital of Odissi contains at least one or two ashtapadis (poem of eight couplets) from Gita Govindam, which describes in exquisite Sanskrit poetry the complex relationship between Radha and her Lord. The Gita Govindam was written by......
5
Veeranatyam, which means the “Dance of the Brave”, is a traditional form of dance. The main characteristic features of this dance pattern are the dexterous movements of hands and other skilful steps. Veeranatyam belongs to which of the following states?
6
Consider the following statements:
Kathakali is the only Indian dance form in which the entire body, both skeleton and muscles, down to even the smallest facial muscle are used to portray emotion.
The Hastha Lakshandeepika is a classical text and forms the basis of hands and arms movement in Kathakali.
Select the correct answer from the options below:
7
Consider the following statements:
Ghode Modni is a form of folk music in Goa sung during weddings by the women.
Ovi, another wedding folk music of Goa, is sung during a ritual in which coconut milk is applied in small quantities on the bride and groom as a symbol of prosperity in terms of material wealth and family.
Select the correct answer code from below:
8
Out of the many beautiful forms of handicrafts, Kalamkari has always been the favourite with the art and craft lovers. The Kalamkari craft involves the art of printing and painting of fabrics. This is a rare kind of art, which uses a Kalam or quill, from which it has earned its name and vegetable dyes. The Kalamkari craft belongs to…..
9
Consider the following statements in the context of Dravida temple architecture:
The chief feature of the Dravida style is the Vimana or the storey.
Chola temples are famous for their richly ornamented gateways called the gopurams.
Which of the above statements are correct?
10
Consider the following statements:
Therukoothu is the most popular form of the folk drama of Andhra Pradesh.
It is mostly performed at the time of annual temple festival of Mariamman (Rain goddess) to achieve rich harvest.
Select the correct answer from below:
11
Consider the following statements:
Kalaripayattu which is one of the oldest martial arts of India is original to Kerala.
Silambam which is another indigenous martial art specializing in stick fighting is original to Tamil Nadu.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
12
Which of the following pair of Dances and respective states is NOT matched correctly?
13
Consider the following statements:
The Lingaraja temple at Bhubaneswar and the Jagannath temple at Puri are examples of the Nagara style of temple architecture.
The Kandariya Mahadev temple of Khajuraho and the Dilwara temples of Mount Abu are examples of the Vesara style of temple architecture.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
14
Vidhushaka, a common character in Sanskrit drama is invariably a—
15
Match the following pairs:
List-I
List-II
A. Chumpha festival
I. Manipur
B. Thiruvonam
II. Kerala
C. Ambubachi Mela
III. Assam
D. Festival of Ugadi
IV. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer code from below:
A B C D
16
Consider the following statements:
Pattachitra refers to the folk painting of Odisha, in the eastern region of India.
Themes of the Pattachitra are chiefly on Lord Jagannath, Radha-Krishna and Jainism.
Select the correct answer code from below:
17
Match the following.
Folk dance
State
A. Bardo Chham
1. Manipur
B. Dhol Cholom
2. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Cheraw
3. Mizoram
D. Chang Lo
4. Nagaland
A B C D
18
Consider the following statements about the Tanjore painting:
It is a major form of classical South Indian painting.
Tanjore paintings are done on hand made cloths or canvas.
The subjects of most of these paintings are Hindu gods, goddesses and saints.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
19
Consider the following statements about the Sattriya Nritya of Assam:
It is one among the eight principal classical Indian dance traditions.
Great saint Srimanta Sankardev, created Sattriya Nritya in the 15th century.
It is mainly performed as tradition in Vaishnava monasteries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
20
Temples have played an important role in Chola Empire. Consider the following statements in this context:
Chola temples often became the nuclei of settlements which grew around them.
Temples were also endowed with land by the rulers as well as by others.
Temples were only places of worship.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
21
Consider the following statements:
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple was constructed by the King of the Chandela dynasty.
This Temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
This was the place for ritual worship where only the king, his immediate family members and priests gathered.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
22
Match the following:
Folk theatre
State
A. Bhand pather
1. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Jatra
2. West Bengal
C. Nautanki
3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Swang
4. Rajasthan
A B C D
23
Consider the following:
Gandhara School of art was based on Greco-Roman style.
Mathura School of art was purely indigenous in its style.
Only standing posture of Buddha’s statues were carved out in the Mathura School.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
24
Consider the following statements about Kathak:
Kathak began evolving into a distinct mode of dance in the 15th and 16th centuries with the spread of the Bhakti Movement.
Under the Mughal emperors and their nobles, Kathak was performed in the court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
25
The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are—
26
Choose the wrong one :
27
Which among these is wrongly matched?
28
Choose the wrong statement :
The oldest book on Indian Drama tradition is written by Bharata.
The earliest source dealing exclusively with astronomy is Jyotisha Vedanga.
Sulva Sutra is the oldest book in Indian Geometry.
Aryabhatta was the astronomer who calculated the length of solar year and value of Pie, very close to modern values.
Code:
29
Consider the following statements about Sangam literature.
Tolkappiyam, the early Tamil grammar was written during first Sangam.
Sangam literature is primarily secular, dealing with everyday themes in a Tamilakam context.
Sangam Poems falls into two categories: the ‘inner field’ and the ‘outer field’.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
30
Consider the following statements regarding the Thanjavur paintings.
Thanjavur paintings are characterised by rich, flat and vivid colors, simple iconic composition.
Thanjavur paintings are panel paintings done on wooden planks.
The subjects of most paintings are only Hindu gods, goddesses, saints and episodes from Hindu Puranas.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
31
Consider the following statements about Losar Festival in Ladakh.
The festival is marked with ancient rituals, the stage fights between good and evil, chanting and the dance of the Ibex deer.
Losar festival celebrates the Ladakhi or Tibetan New Year.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
32
Who constructed Raj Rajeshwari Temple at Tanjavur?
33
Consider the fol lowing statements about Kathak.
This dance form traces its origin to the nomadic bards of ancient northern India, known as Kathakars or storytellers.
Passing of knowledge from guru to shishya is the main feature of Kathak.
It is based on the concept of Gharana.
Which of the above statements are correct?
34
Consider the following statements about Madhu-bani painting:
It is a style of painting practised in the Mithila region of Bihar.
Themes revolve around Hindu Gods and mythology, along with scenes from the royal court and social events like weddings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Codes:
35
Consider the following statements about Bihu festival:
Bihu is the festival of New Year of Assam falling in mid-April.
This is a festival of nature and mother earth.
The first day of festival is for the cows and buffaloes and Second day is for the man.
Which of the above statements are correct?Codes:
36
Consider the following statements about Rajput paintings:
Rajput paintings depict a number of themes, events of epics like the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.
The colours used in paintings were extracted from certain minerals and plant sources.
It develops distinctive styles combining indigenous as well as foreign influences.
Which of the above statements are correct?Codes:
37
Match the following:
Folk theatre
State/region
I. Bhand pather
(1) Maharashtra
II. Dashavatar
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
III. Nautanki
(3) Karnataka
IV. Yakshagana
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Codes:
38
Which of the following statements regarding Ajanta cave paintings are correct?
Ajanta cave paintings include descriptions of country life, processions, men and women at work and festivals.
The paintings depict stories from the Jatakas.
The technique of shading has been used to give a three dimensional quality to these pictures and some of the paintings are extremely naturalistic.
Codes:
39
Consider the following statements about classical music in India:
The musical chanting of Samveda is said to be the source of the later secular and classical music.
Raga and Tala are the two musical pillars of the Indian music.
Pandit V.N Bhatkhande had classified Ragas into the 10 Thaats.
Which of the above statements are correct?
40
Thang Ta, a famous martial art form, belongs to which of the following state:
41
Which of the following statements regarding Chola period architecture are correct?
The style of architecture which came into vogue during this period was called Dravida because it was confined largely to South India.
The installation of images of Kings and queens in addition to that of deities was in practice during Chola period.
One of the finest and most elaborate examples of this style is Brehadeshwara temple at Thanjavur which was built by Rajaraja Chola I.
Codes:
42
Which of the following is/are true about Madhubani Paintings?
It is also referred as Mithila Art.
Earlier the paintings were drawn on mud plastered walls during important festivals and ceremonies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Codes:
43
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
Tanjore painting was developed after the fall of Vijayanagar empire.
Mysore became the main centre for silk as early as in the reign of Tipu Sultan.
Codes:
44
Consider the following statements regarding Manipuri classical dance form:
It pays much more attention to facial movements than other classical dances.
It does not pay much attention to facial movements.
It lays down a greater emphasis on knee and hand position.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
45
Sankirtana, a form of ritual singing, drumming and dancing belongs to which of the following state?
46
Which of the following is not the correct match of folk dances and the given States?
47
Which of the following statements is/are true about Ellora caves?
The Ellora caves are carved into the sides of a Basaltic hill.
Structures in the Ellora caves represent the Buddhist mythologies only.
Codes:
48
Which of the following statements is/are true about Rock cut Architecture?
Chaityas and monasteries are the best example of rock cut architecture.
Chaityas were dwellings of monks while viharas were places of worship.
Codes:
49
Consider the following statements regarding Kathak dance form:
50
which of the following is/are not a characteristic feature of Kathakali dance?
It is characterized by a strong dramatic element.
In Kathakali the dancers are not narrators but actors.
Kathakali carries the sensuousness and fluidity of odissi.
Codes:
51
Which of the following statements is/are true about Dhrupad?
It is considered as one of the oldest forms of Hindustani Vocal Music.
Dhrupad is always accompanied by a Pakhawaj.
Codes:
52
Which of the following is Dravidian style temple-
53
Main characteristics of early medieval paintings are–
54
Kamikagama deals with-
55
Rekhadeul is:
56
Shantamurti is a feature of
57
Concept of temple libraries evolved from
58
Which of the following hold(s) true about the Western Indian School of Painting?
The style was flat and decorative and before paper was brought to India, palm leaf palettes were used in simple red, yellow, gold, black and white colours.
A distinguished feature was that profile heads showed bulging glass eyes to add realism to image.
As paper and blue pigment were brought to India more greens and blues were added and brush work became more detailed and elaborate.
Laur Chanda and blue, Baramassa, Rasik Priya were some famous works of the period.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
59
Rehka, Bdadre, Kharlchare, Gudiya are-
60
Which one of the following ragas is sung late in the evening?
61
Consider the following statements regarding Jaina miniature paintings:
They are mainly in the form of manuscript paintings mainly in the folios of Kalpasutra.
They date back to as early as 6th century AD.
Mature form of Jaina miniatures originated in western India.
They employ a highly aesthetic linear perspective.
Colors used were derived almost exclusively from minerals and vegetables.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
62
Consider the following statements in the context of British influence on Indian painting traditions:
East India Company merchants provided large market for native art.
Many European painters visited royal courts in India to cater to demand of European style portraits.
“Company painting” employed linear perspectives and use of water colors.
Revivalist movement in painting developed in Bengal as a sharp reaction to western influence.
Consider the following statements in the context of the provisions of the Cripps Mission:
It refused to provide dominion status to India and rather offered a plan for formation of constituent assembly.
It prescribed holding of fresh elections to all the provincial legislature.
Representatives of the Indian states were to constitute an electoral college which would, in turn, elect the constitution-making body.
It prescribed that if a province expressed its unwillingness to accept the constitution, it could refuse accession to the Indian union and instead formulate its own constitution.
Which of the above statements is are correct in the related context?
2
In October, 1943 Lord Wavell, Governor-General, made an attempt to resolve the deadlock in India. Consider the following statements about the Wavell Plan and select the correct answer:
It included formation of an interim government before proceeding for the work of framing Constitution.
According to the plan all members of the Central Executive Council barring the Governor-General were to be Indians.
The proposed interim government was to have a balanced representation of the main communities including equal proportion of Muslims and Caste Hindus.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements about the Cripps Mission and select the correct answer:
It was an attempt by the British government to secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.
The leaders of the Muslim League, along with the Congress opposed the Indian involvement in war.
The proposal of Cripps mission was criticized by Gandhi as a “post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank”.
Codes:
4
August Offer 1940, offered which one of the following:
Dominion Status in an unspecified future.
A post-war Body to enact the Constitution.
To expand the Governor General’s Executive Council to give full weightage to minority opinion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
5
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajagopalachari formula:
The formula asked Muslim League to endorse congress demand for Independence.
The formula asked League to cooperate with the Congress in forming a provisional government at the centre.
Which of the above statements are correct?
6
Consider the following statements about the Cripps Mission:
Cripps mission offered the Dominion Status to India after the war.
The leader of the Muslim League supported the Indian involvement in war.
The proposal of Cripps mission was criticized by Gandhi as a “post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank”.
Which of the above statements are correct?
7
Consider the following statements regarding the proposals made in “August Offer” of 1940:
Complete Independence for India gradually.
Dominion Status.
Provincial autonomy.
Representative government at the Centre.
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
8
Which of the following provisions were contained in the Desai-Liaquat formula?
Equal number of persons nominated by congress and league in Central Legislature
Representation of Minorities
In event of separation of India, agreements would be made for defence, communication and other essential matters
Select the correct answer from the code(s) given below:
9
With reference to ‘August Offer’, find out the incorrect statement.
10
With reference to recommendations of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
Setting up of a post war constituent assembly.
There would be provision for any Province of British India not prepared to accept this Constitution, either to retain its present constitutional position or frame a constitution of its own.
Protection of minorities.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
11
For which of the following British proposal Gandhiji called it as a “Post-dated Cheque”?
12
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
Formation of Forward Bloc
August Offer
Quit India Movement
Individual Satyagraha
Cripps Mission
Choose the correct order:
13
Consider the following statements:
August Declaration (1917)provided for dominion status to India after First World War
Lord Chelmsford made this declaration.
This declaration acted as a precursor to Montague Chelmsford reforms.
Choose the correct statement/s:
14
Consider the following statements:
Cripps Mission offered dominion status to India.
Lord Wavell was the viceroy when this mission came to India
It was accepted by both Congress and the Muslim League
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
15
Consider the following statements:
August 8 Offer was announced by Lord Linlithgow.
It was accepted by both Congress and the Muslim League.
Choose the correct statement/s:
16
During struggle for India’s Independence Gandhiji called ‘a post dated cheque on a crashing bank’ to
17
Which one of the following statement about Cripps mission is incorrect?
The British followed an expansionist policy under Lord Wellesly known as “Subsidiary Alliance”. Consider the following statements related to this policy:
An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British had to accept British forces within his territory and also agreed to pay for their maintenance.
If a ruler of the protected state died without having a natural heir, his adopted son would be denied to rule and the state would be annexed by Britishers.
The ruler would accept a British Resident in his state.
Which of the above statement/s is /are true?
2
The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary Alliance was—
3
Consider the following statements:
Foundation of local self government was laid under the Viceroy-ship of Lord Ripon.
During the first Indian census, Lord Mayo was the Viceroy of India.
Lord William Bentick was the last Governor General of Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Which of the following Treaties gave Diwani right of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to British?
5
Subsidiary Alliance was a system in which:
Zamindars had to pay a huge amount to the State.
It was a trap to suppress Santhal Revolt.
The British would not be held responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threat.
The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission of the Britishers.
Which one of the above statements is/are correct?
6
Consider the following statements with respect to the Doctrine of lapse.
Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie to annex kingdoms in India.
Satara and Jhansi were annexed by applying this doctrine.
It could annex kingdom on basis of misgovernment.
Which of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?
7
Consider the following statements:
East India Company acquired territories in India through military conquests.
British Government in India also pursued the policy of military conquests for territorial expansion.
Choose the correct statement/s:
8
Who was the Nawab of Bengal and Governor of Fort Williams respectively when so called Black Hole tragedy occurred?
9
Consider the following statements:
Under subsidiary alliance system, ruler of Indian state had to accept a British Resident.
Lord Wellesley made first subsidiary treaty with the Nizam of Hyderabad.
Choose the correct statement/s:
10
Consider the following statements:
Sir Charles Napier was appointed first as the British Resident in Sind and later as its first Governor.
British annexed Sind in the year 1843.
Annexation of Sind took place during the Governor–Generaliship of Lord Hardinge I.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
11
Consider the following statements:
Regulating Act of 1773 transferred Government of Bengal in the hand of British governor.
Pitts India Act of 1784 empowered Court of Directors to make all appointments in India.
Choose the incorrect statements:
12
Which of the following treaties are correctly matched:
Treaty of Lahore - 1846
Treaty of Salbai - 1782
Treaty of Bassein - 1802
Treaty of Mangalore - 1784
Choose the correct code:
13
Consider the following statements about subsidiary alliance system:
Lord Cornwallis introduced this system.
Under this system, the Indian princely state had to accept a British resident in their territory.
The Nawab of Awadh was first to accept the Subsidiary Alliance.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
14
Directions: In the question given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and (R): In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?
Assertion (A): East India company had all the powers without any responsibility during the dual system of Government in Bengal.
Reason (R): Nawab of Bengal had neither power nor responsibility.
Choose the correct option:
15
With reference to Treaty of Salbai, consider the following statements:
In May 1782, the Treaty of Salbai was signed between Warren Hastings and Mahadaji Scindia.
It provided the British twenty years of peace with the Marathas.
According to treaty, Salsette and Bassein were given to the British.
Which of the statements given above is/are/correct?
16
With reference to the doctrine of lapse, find the incorrect statement?
17
Which of the following Treaties gave Diwani right of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to British?
18
With reference to Subsidiary Alliance policy of British in India, consider the following statements
Under this Indian rulers were not allowed to have their independent armed forces.
Indian rulers have to pay for maintaining British forces in their territory.
If fail to pay Indian rulers can cede their some part of territory to British company.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
19
With reference to Doctrine of Lapse of British company in India, find out the incorrect statement
The Permanent Settlement system which had created the first group of landlords in India was launched by the Britishers. The salient features of the system were:
It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in 1793.
It had recognized the landlords as the proprietor of the land with the right of hereditary succession.
Landlords had no right to transfer, sell or mortgage the land in their possession.
Which of above statements is/are correct?
2
During British rule India had to make huge payments to people in England on account of political, administrative, and commercial connections established between India and England. These charges were called ‘Home Charges’. They included -
Interest on public debt raised in India.
Annuities on account of railways and irrigation works.
Dividend to the shareholders of the East India Company.
Civil and Military charges.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements. Which one of them is/are correct?
The ryotwari system is associated with the name of Sir Thomas Munro.
In the Zamindari system land revenue was imposed indirectly.
In Bombay, Madras, Assam and Burma the Zamindar usually did not have a position as a middleman between the government and the farmer.
4
What is ‘Imperial Preferences’ in British time?
5
Match the following :
Land Revenue System
Associated Person
A. Ryot wari System
1. Munro and Reed
B. Zamindari System
2. Merttins Bird
C. Mahal wari System
3. Holt Mackenzie
4. John Shore
Code:
1 2 3 4
6
The salient features of Land Revenue System during the Britishers’ rule were:
Permanent Settlement System was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in 1793.
Munro and Read had introduced the Ryotwari System in N-W province, part of Central India and Punjab.
Mahalwari system was introduced by Mackenzie in Madras and Mumbai Presidency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
7
During the British rule in India which of the following charges applied by Britishers were called ‘Home Charges’?
Interest on public debt raised in England.
Annuities on account of railways and irrigation works.
Dividend paid to the shareholders of the East India Company.
Codes:
8
Consider the following statements about the agriculture policies during British period:
System of the rural banks on cooperative lines was introduced.
Land Improvement Loans Act of 1883 had introduced the system of rural credit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
9
The East-India Company began to use the term ‘Investments in India’ for—
10
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
The Permanent Settlement of Bengal, concluded in 1793 by Cornwallis, provided proprietary rights of the soil to class of aristocratic Zamindars.
The Zamindars emerged from the Permanent Settlement operations in a weaker position.
Thomas Munro developed a system of settlement under which the government did not deal directly with the individual peasant cultivator.
The land policy and settlements did not lead to structural changes in control over land aid in the relations among classes associated with land-cultivation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
11
Who among the following is not associated with economic critique of colonialism?
12
Consider the following statements:
Financial burden imposed by the British on Travancore was one of the causes of revolt led by Velu Thambi.
One of the aims of the Faraizi movement was to restore Muslim rule in India by expelling British.
Choose the correct statement/s:
13
With reference to Ryotwari system, consider the following statements:
The Ryotwari System covered about 51 per cent of the area under British rule in India.
Sir Thomas Munro introduced this system in the Madras Presidency.
The land revenue was fixed for a period for 40 years only at a time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
With reference to Mahalwari system, find the incorrect statement.
15
Indian handicraft industry had begun to decline by the beginning of the 18th century, consider the following statements:
The Indian market was flooded with the cheap finished goods from Britain.
In 1769, the Company encouraged the cultivation of raw silk in Bengal while imposing service restrictions on the sale of its finished products.
In 1813, strategies were devised by the Company to enhance the consumption of finished goods from Britain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
16
Consider the following statements with reference to Ryotwari settlement:
It was introduced by Thomas Munro.
This was prevalent in South India especially Madras Presidency.
The Government gave pattas to the Ryots.
The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the government.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
17
Permanent Settlement was a major land revenue system introduced by colonial government in India. Which of the following is not correct about it?
18
With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, "Home charges" formed an important part of the drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds were not the part of "Home Charges"?
Funds for waging wars outside India by British.
Funds to pay pensions of British personnel.
Funds used to support the Indian office in London.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
19
In the year 1859 British passed the 'Limitation Law', it is related to:
20
Consider the following statements:
Dadabhai Naoroji advocated Drain of Wealth Theory exposing British economic exploitation of India
Drain of wealth constitutes remittances to England by British in India, interest charges on public debt held in Britain etc.
Choose the incorrect statement:
21
With reference to Permanent Settlement, consider the following statements
It was introduced in 1793.
By the terms of the settlement only rajas were recognized as zamindars.
Robert Clive introduced it in India.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
22
With reference to Ryotwari system, consider the following statements
It was developed by Alexander Read only
Because to no traditional big landlord it was introduced.
The Treaty of Seringapatam, signed on 19 March 1792, ended the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Which of the following statements regarding this treaty are true?
Its signatories included representatives of Nizam of Hyderabad and Maratha Empire, Robert Clive on behalf of East India Company, and Tipu Sultan.
Under the treaty, Mysore ceded about one half of its territories to other signatories.
Tipu Sultan, to guarantee Mysore’s performance, was required to surrender two of his three sons as hostages of war.
Codes:
2
Match the following :
(A)
(B)
A. 1st Anglo-Sikh War
1. Auckland
B. 1st Anglo-Maratha War
2. Warren Hastings
C. 1st Anglo-Burmese War
3. Harding I
D. 1st Anglo-Afghan War
4. Amherst
Code:
A B C D
3
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to first Carnatic war?
It bagan in 1746 and ended in 1748.
Chanda Saheb was capture and executed.
Anwar-ud-din, the nawab of carnatic, intervened in the war on behalf of the English.
Madras was restored to the English by the French after the war.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Consider the followings statements:
First Carnatic war took place between Nizam of Hyderabad and British East India Company.
In the Battle of Wandiwash Eyre Coote was defeated by Count de Lally.
Choose the correct statement/s:
5
Consider the following statements:
Battle of Plassey made British East India Company a paramount power in India.
One of the main cause for this battle was misinterpretation of Farman of the Mughal by the British.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
6
Consider the following statements:
Battle of Buxar took place during period of Vensittart as a Governor of Fort Williams.
Robert Clive served twice as a Governor of Fort William.
Choose the correct statement/s:
7
Consider the following statements:
Treaty of Madras was a result of First Anglo-Mysore war.
Second Anglo-Mysore war took place during the period of Cornwallis as the Governor of Bengal.
Governor–General William Bentinck took over the administration of Mysore citing misgovernment by its rulers, in the year 1813.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
8
Arrange the following in a chronological order:
Battle of Buxar
Treaty of Seringpatam
First Anglo-Maratha war
Third Anglo-Carnatic War
Choose the correct option:
9
Which of the following treaties are related to Anglo-Maratha War?
Treaty of Lahore
Treaty of Purandhar
Treaty of Rajpurghat
Treaty of Mandasor
Correct option:
10
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
11
Consider the following statements about Battle of Bedara:
It was fought between British and French East India company respectively.
British emerged victorious in this battle.
Victorious British replaced Mir Jafar with his son-in-law as a ruler of Bengal.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
12
Match the following:
List I
List II
1. Hector Munro
i. The first nawab of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa
2. Shuja-ud-din
ii. Battle of Plassey
3. Robert Clive
iii. The last nawab of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa
4. Najm-ud-daula
iv. Battle of buxar
Choose the correct match:
13
With reference to Anglo-Maratha War, consider the following statements:
The first war (1775–82) began with British support for Raghunath Rao’s bid for the office of Peshwa of the confederacy.
The second war (1803–05) was caused by the Peshwa Baji Rao II’s defeat by the Bhonsle.
The third war (1817–18) was the result of an invasion of Maratha territory in the course of operations against Pindari robber bands by the British governor-general, Lord Wellesley.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
14
With respect to 3rd Anglo-Mysore war, consider the following statements, select the incorrect statement:
15
With reference to The Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84), which of the below statements is not correct reason for it?
16
Match the following:
1. Treaty of Sriranga-pattanam
a. 1782
2. Treaty of Salbai
b. 1792
3. Treaty of Bassein
c. 1802
Select the correct answer using the code below:
17
With reference to Battle of Plassey, consider the following statements:
The Battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal on 23 June 1757.
The battle took place at Plassey on the banks of the Damodar River.
Robert Clive bribed Mir Jafar, the Commander in Chief of the Nawab's army, and also promised him to make him Nawab of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
18
With reference to Battle of Buxar, Consider the following statements:
The Battle of Buxar was fought in 1765.
The British fought under the command of Sir Hector Munro.
The battle was fought between the forces under the command of the British East India Company and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal; the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal Emperor Farukhsiyar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements are true in the context of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946?
A union of India, comprising both British India and princely states, should deal with three subjects viz. foreign affairs, defense and communications.
The princely states should retain all subjects other than, those ceded to the union.
All residuary powers should vest in the provinces of British India.
The constitution of the union and the groups should contain a provision whereby any province could by a majority vote of its legislative assembly call for a one time reconsideration of the terms of the constitution after an initial period of ten years after which there would be no scope for reconsideration.
Codes:
2
Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly is/are correct?
The constitution of a Constituent Assembly was an integral part of the Cabinet Mission Plan.
The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas, a committee under the Constituent Assembly, was headed by Maulana Azad.
Codes:
3
Which of the following statements about the Executive Council of 1945 is/are correct?
The Executive Council could nominate members from among the nationalist leaders.
The Executive Council could have equal numbers of Hindu and Muslim representatives.
The veto power of the Governor-General was to be abolished.
The subject of foreign affairs was to be transferred from the Governor-General to an Indian Member of the Council.
Codes:
4
Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission Plan are correct?
It recognized Indian Right to cede from the Commonwealth.
The Cabinet Mission plan proposed a strong Centre.
The Cabinet Mission plan rejected the idea of separate Pakistan.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
5
According to Cabinet Mission plan, which one of the following was method of electing constituent Assembly?
6
Which of the following are correct regarding Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)?
The Cabinet Mission proposed the formation of a Union of India, comprising both the British India and the Princely States.
The Union would remain in charge of only foreign affairs, defence and communications leaving the residuary powers to be vested in the provinces.
A proposal was envisaged for setting up an Interim Government, which would remain in office till a new government was elected on the basis of the new constitution framed by the Constituent Assembly.
Muslim League not accepted the plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
7
Who was the first President at the Central Legislative Assembly?
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Dyarchy system?
Provincial subjects were divided into “Reserved Subjects” and “Transferred Subjects”.
“Reserved Subjects” include police, jails, land revenue, irrigation and forests.
“Transferred Subjects” include education, local self-government, public health, sanitation, agriculture and industries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2
Which of the following provisions were included in the Government of India Act, 1919?
Introduction of ‘Dyarchy’ in the provinces and the division of provincial subjects into ‘Reserved’ subjects and ‘Transferred’ subjects.
Making the Central Legislature bicameral and more representative by removing the official majority and increasing the non-official directly elected majority.
Appointment of a High Commissioner of India at London, who would be responsible to Indian government and paid by it.
Codes:
3
Which of the following is not the feature of the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms?
4
Consider the following statements about the Dyarchy system introduced by the Government of India act of 1919:
It provided absolute powers to the provincial governments
Under this system some subjects, such as finance and law and order, were called ‘reserved’ and were under the direct control of the minister responsible to the legislatures
Choose the correct option:
5
Consider the following statement(s) about Montagu-Chelmsford Act?
6
With reference to Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919, consider the following statements:
A bicameral (Two Chambers) legislature was set up at the centre.
A High Commissioner for India at London was appointed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
7
The GOI Act of 1919 provided for division of provincial subjects into reserved and transferred subjects. Which of the following constitutes transferred subjects?
Which of the following statements constituted the items of the Gandhi-Irwin pact signed in March 1931 between Governor General Lord Irwin and Mahatma Gandhi?
Release of all political prisoners, except those guilty of violence.
Permit the free collection or manufacture of salt to persons residing within a specific distance from the sea coast.
Permit peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops.
Codes:
2
Which of the following points were agreed upon in Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
Immediate and effective withdrawal of the Civil Disobedience Movement by the Congress.
Withdrawal of ordinance promulgated in relation to Civil Disobedience Movement.
Release of all political prisoners.
Codes:
3
Which of the following events happened during the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1931) salt satyagrah.
In Bihar, protest against Chowkidari tax in Saran, Bhagalpur and Monghyr were organised.
Refusal of Garhwal soldiers to fire on the people of Peshawar.
Organization of a society known as ‘Red Shirts’ in north-east.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Regarding First Round Table Conference, which of the following statements is/are correct?
It was held to discuss the Simon Commission recommendations.
INC did not attend the first session but were present in the other two rounds of conference.
This was attended by B.R. Ambedkar.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
5
Who among the following attended all 3 Round Table Conference?
6
Which of the following were contained in Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
Remission of all fines not yet collected.
Return of confiscated lands not yet soled to third parties.
Public inquiry into police excesses.
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
7
Consider the following statements about Poona Pact:
It had introduced the system of reservation of the seats for the depressed classes in the provincial legislature.
It had also introduced the system of reservation of the seats for the depressed classes in the central legislature.
It accepted the joint electorate system.
Which of the above statements are correct? Codes:
8
Which of the following personalities is /are associated with Poona Pact?
Madan Mohan Malviya
T. Prakashan
B. R. Ambedkar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
9
With reference to Civil Disobedience Movement, consider the following statements:
As the government failed to accept the Nehru Report, the Congress gave a call to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Civil Disobedience movement was launched by breaking the salt laws.
Students, workers, farmers and women, all participated in this movement with great enthusiasm.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
10
With reference to Round Table Conference, consider the following statements:
The first Round Table Conference was held in November 1930 at London and it was boycotted by the Congress.
Gandhiji participated in the Second-Round Table Conference on behalf of Congress.
The third round table conference came to an end in 1932.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
11
With reference to Poona pact, find out the incorrect statement.
12
Which of the following statement is Correct?
13
Consider the following statements:
Gandhiji started Civil Disobedience movement with salt march
The Golden Jubilee session of INC was presided by J.L. Nehru.
On account of launching the First All India General Strike by Gandhi is April 6 1919, he was acknowledged ‘Mass leader of the Congress’.
Which statement is/are true :
3
During the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress (1916), the Muslim League and the Congress came together and presented common demands to the Government. Which of the following reasons for this shift in the League’s position is/are true?
Annulment of partition of Bengal in 1911 had annoyed those sections of Muslims who had supported the partition.
The refusal of the British Government in India to set up a university at Aligarh with powers to affiliate colleges all over India also alienated some Muslims from Government.
Acceptance of Congress regarding Muslim League’s position on separate electorates.
Codes:
4
Which of the following demands regarding Jinnah’s fourteen points is/are not correct?
No constitutional amendment by the centre without the concurrence of the states constituting the Indian federation.
No Bill or resolution in any legislature to be passed if two-third of a minority community consider such a Bill or resolution to be against their interests.
Constitutional reforms in the NWFP and Sindh Province.
Codes:
5
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
At the Nagpur session of 1920 a working committee of 15 members was formed to enable the Congress to function as a continuous political organization.
At the Calcutta Session, the first All India Youth Congress came into existence.
Codes:
6
Consider the following statements :
P. Anadcharlu was the 2nd Hindu president of Indian National Congress.
1st Session of Indian Union (Later on INC) was held in Bombay in which most of delegates were from western part of India.
Which statement is/are true?
7
Who is regarded as “The Mother of Indian Revolution”?
8
Consider the following:
Split in congress in 1907 in Kolkata session
Annie Besant came to India in 1893 to work for Theosophical society.
Moderates allowed re-entry of extremist group in December 1914 congress session.
In 1909 Montague-Chelmsford reforms were introduced.
Which of the above statements are correct?
9
Consider the following statements:
Sarojini Naidu was the first women to be the president of the Congress.
In 1898, the scheme of national education was formulated by Satish Chandra Mukherjee.
The aim of Woods dispatch was to introduce the scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
10
Who suggested to change the name Indian Union to Indian National Congress?
11
Consider the following statements related to INC sessions:
First Indian woman President of the INC was Mrs. Sarojini Naidu.
The National Song, Vande Matram was first sung at Allahabad Session in 1888.
The first session after independence was presided by Acharya JB Kriplani.
Which of the above statements are correct?
12
The inactivity that had penetrated in National Congress in the first decade of the 19th century was due to:
Effects of split at Surat in 1907.
Government repression of Swadeshi activists.
Disillusionment of moderates with constitu-tional reforms of 1909.
Absence of Lala Lajpat Rai and Aurobindo Ghosh.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
13
Consider the following statements in the context of the recommendations of the Nehru report presented to the fourth session of the All-parties Conference at Lucknow in 1928:
Provision for the freedom of conscience, profession and practice of one’s religion.
Lower house of the central legislature and the provincial councils to consist of members elected by joint mixed electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims or Hindus wherever they were in minority.
No reservation of seats for Muslims in Punjab and Bengal.
Reservation of seats on the basis of population and for a fixed period of 10 years and provision of adult universal suffrage.
Select the correct answer from below:
14
With reference to the Nehru Report, 1928, consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct?
The first major Indian effort to draft a constitutional framework for India was through the Nehru Report.
Poorna Swaraj was demanded through the Nehru Report.
The report had a different chapter on minority rights apart from the fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
15
With reference to Surat Split of Congress, consider the following statements:
The 1907 Surat session was held at the bank of the Narmada river in Surat.
The Extremist camp was led by Lal, Bal and Pal and the moderate camp was led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
The Surat session was presided by Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
16
With reference to Indian National Congress 1905, consider the following statements:
The Indian National Congress, meeting in 1905 under the Presidentship of Gokhale.
It support the anti-partition and Swadeshi Movement of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
17
Match the following Congress President and their year of President ship.
President
Year
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
a. 1888
2. George Yule
b. 1901
3. Dinshaw E. Wach
c. 1906
Select the correct code:
18
Who was the first women Graduate from British India and Addressed the Congress session also?
19
Who was the President of Lahore session of Congress in 1929?
20
With reference to Gaya session (1922) of Congress, consider the following statements:
It was led by Nehru.
C.R. Das moved a proposal to enter the legislatures but it was defeated.
C.R. Das resigned from the presidentship of the Congress and along with Moti Lal Nehru, N.C. Kelkar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21
Which amongst the following was/were likely to be the objective of the foundation of Indian National Congress?
To know real demand of the people and presenting them before the British Government.
To provide a platform for consolidation of feeling of national unity.
Demand for complete independence from the British.
To promote cordial relation among the nationalist workers from different parts of the country.
To act as a bridge between the rule and the ruled.
Choose the correct option:
22
Consider the following statements:
Lucknow Pact of 1916 refers to an agreement between revolutionary and the extremists.
Sarojini Naidu gave Gandhiji the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity”.
Lucknow session of Congress of 1916 was presided by Annie Besant.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
23
Consider the following statements:
In the Nagpur session of 1920, the Congress adopted new constitution.
In this session Non cooperation campaign was ratified.
The newly adopted constitution of the Congress marked beginning of the Gandhian era in Indian politics.
Choose the correct option:
24
Consider the following statements:
Congress adopted resolution of complete independence at Lahore session of 1929.
Annie Besant was the first women president of the Congress session.
Last pre-independence session of the Congress was presided over by J. B. Kriplani.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
25
“We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth…… we believe therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or complete independence”.
Who made this statement and where?
26
Conisder the following statements about Maulan Abul Kalam Azad:
He was the first education minister in the Government of Independent India.
He was the youngest person to serve as the president of the Indian Congress in 1923.
Swaraj party was formed when he was president of the Congress session.
He vehemently opposed Dharsana Satyagraha as it was against the ideals of Gandhiji.
Choose the correct statement/s:
27
Consider the following statements about Jawahar Lal Nehru:
He presided over a Congress session in which complete independence was demanded.
He authored books Discovery of India and A Bunch of Old Letters.
He opposed Home Rule Movement.
He raised the voice of India’s struggle at international forums.
Choose the correct statement/s:
28
In the early phase of Indian National Congress (INC) issue of Moderates and Extremists emerged. Consider the following statements in this context.
Moderates believed in the mass based politics.
Gopal Krishna Gokhale accused INC of practising politics of pray and petition.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
29
Split in the Indian national congress is very famously known as Surat Split. Consider the following statements in reference to Surat Split.
Foundation of Muslim League was the main reason of split.
Surat Split happened in 1906.
Ras Bihari Ghosh become the President of Congress in Surat session.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
30
In which of the following sessions did Congress passed Poorna Swaraj resolution?
31
‘Purna Swaraj’ was declared in which congress session?
EIC in early years believed in downward filtration theory of education.
Due to Modern education, modern ideas percolate to a large entent in mass in British India.
They propagated education in English medium because this is the language of the masters as well as the language of the administration.
2
Consider the following statements about Woods Dispatch of 1854:
It is called Magna Carta of English educa-tion in India.
English language was made the medium of both primary and higher education in India.
Women and vocational education was also recommended.
Which of the above statements are correct?Codes:
3
With the advent of Britishers the modern education was introduced in India. Consider the following statements related to modern education phases in India:
Wood’s Dispatch was considered as the Magna Carta of English Education in India. It laid stress on mass education, female education and improvement of vernaculars and favoured secularism in Education.
The professional education was launched during 1813 - 1853 by the establishment of medical, engineering and law colleges.
Hartog Committee 1929 recommended universal and compulsory education for all children in the age group 6 - 11.
Wardha scheme of Basic Education (1937), worked out by the Zakir Hussain Committee, recommended medium of instruction should be English for expansion of modern education.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
4
Which of the following statements regarding Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch on Education, 1854 is/are correct?
It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the ‘downward filtration theory’.
The Despatch emphasized the importance of vocational instruction and the need for establishing technical schools and colleges.
Codes:
5
Consider the following statements related to National Education Policy recommended by Kothari Committee:
It stressed on free and compulsory education up to the age of 14.
It stressed on improving the status and emoluments of teachers.
It laid the foundation for adaptation of three language formulae and development of regional languages.
Which of the above statements are correct?
6
Consider the following statements regarding Charles Wood’s Dispatch:
It advocated the idea of downward filtration theory.
It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
7
In reference to the policy of Orientalism:
Warren Hastings adopted this policy to improve governance in India.
As a result of this policy, the Asiatic Society of Bengal, the Calcutta Madarsa and Sanskrit at Benaras were set up.
The policy aimed at orienting the profit, exclusively towards Britain.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
8
Which of the following is not recommended by Wood’s dispatch of 1854?
9
Who said “I have no time to think about God, since there is much to be done on earth”?
10
Consider the following:
In 1898 Annie Besant established the Central Hindu College at Benares which later formed the nucleus of the Benares Hindu University.
Indulal Kanaiyalal Yagnik was an Indian independence activist who lead Mahagu- jarat Movement.
George Arundale was Theosophical follower of Annie Besant.
Lokmanya Tilak set up Home Rule league at Bombay Provincial conference in Aril 1916.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
11
With reference to Universities Act-1904, consider the following statements:
It was based on 1902-Hunter commission.
Curzon accepted the recommendation of commission.
This brought all the Universities in India under the control of the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
12
With reference to Hunter Education Commission (1882-1883), consider the following statements:
Objective to look into the complaints of the non-implementation of the Wood’s Despatch of 1854.
The contemporary status of university education in the British territories.
Suggested means by which this can be extended and improved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
13
With reference to Wardha Scheme of Basic Education, consider the following statements:
It was based on Gandhiji’s article in the daily newspaper Harijan.
Free and compulsory education to be provided for 7 years at a nationwide scale.
Mother tongue should be the medium of instruction.
A committee under Dr. Zakir Hussain was appointed to formulate the scheme of the basic education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
With reference to Hartog Committee (1929), find out incorrect statement.
15
Arrange the following educational reforms in British India in their chronological order:
Chales Wood’s Despatch
Sadler University Commission
Hartog Committee
Wardha Scheme of Basic Education
Choose the correct order:
16
With reference to Charles Wood Dispatch, find the incorrect statement.
17
With respect to education system in British India, consider following statements:
The Charter Act of 1813 adopted a provision to spend one lakh rupees per annum for the spread of education in India.
Macaulay Minute advocated the Anglicist point of view.
The Orientalists, advocated the promotion of oriental subjects through Indian languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
18
Which amongst the following is not related to British educational reforms in India?
The Charter act of 1813
Woods Dispatch of 1854
Hunter Commission of 1882
Saddler Commission
Choose the correct option:
19
Consider the following statements regarding Charles Wood’s Dispatch:
It advocated the idea of downward filtration theory.
It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
Which of the following is correct about the Lucknow Pact of 1916?
Lucknow Pact was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League to pressurize the British government to adopt a liberal approach to India.
The Pact failed to reunite the moderate and extremist groups of Congress.
Codes:
2
With reference to methods used by the extremists, Find out the incorrect statement?
3
With reference to Bal Gangadhar Tilak, consider the following statements:
The Britishers called Bal Gangadhar Tilak, 'The Father of the Indian unrest'.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak started the Swadeshi movement in India. Jamshed Tata and Tilak found Bombay Swadeshi Co-op Stores to promote the movement.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak joined the Indian National Congress (INC) in the year 1890 and started the fight of self-rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4
Which of the following can be termed as an achievement of Extremist nationalist leaders of Indian independence movement?
They were the first to demand Swaraj as a matter of birth right
Involved masses in the freedom struggle
Organized movement having pan India character
Choose the correct option:
5
Consider the following statements about Madan Mohan Malviya:
He served as the president of Congress for four times.
He was the founder of Banaras Hindu University.
He started English newspaper “The Leader”.
Mahatma Gandhi conferred the title of “Mahamana” on him.
Choose the incorrect statements:
6
Which of the following leader advocated for doctrine of passive resistance and in which paper/article/journal etc?
7
Which amongst the following were the methods or course of actions adopted by extremists during Independence movements?
Which of the following Governor-Generals/ Viceroys are correctly matched with the main events and developments during their respective tenure?
Foundation of Asiatic Society of Bengal - Lord Cornwallis
Prohibition of female infanticide - Lord Hardinge I
Establishment of High Courts at Bombay, Madras and Calcutta - Lord John Lawrence
Widow Remarriage Act - Lord Dalhousie
Codes:
2
Consider the following statements:
Lord William Bentinck appointed two committees, one military and one civil, to make recommendations for effecting economy in expenditure.
Bentinck tried to employ Indians wherever possible in place of highly paid Europeans.
He reduced the Bhatta i.e. extra or additional allowances paid to military officers.
Allowances of civil servants were also reduced during his regime.
Which of the above statements are correct?
3
What is the correct chronological sequence of the events which took place during the tenure of office of Lord William Bentinck?
Introduction of English as the Official language.
Abolition of Sati.
Annexation of Mysore.
Suppression of Thuggee.
Codes:
4
Which of the following statements regarding extension of British Dominion under Wellesley is/are correct?
In Northern India, the Company’s political Jurisdiction extended from Bengal to the bordering upper Sind and Punjab.
By a revised subsidiary treaty in 1800, he forced Nizam to cede districts of Bellary and Cuddapah to the Company.
Wellesley took over the administration of Tanjore, Surat and Carnatic in 1799, 1800 and 1801.
Codes:
5
Which of the following recommendation of Aitchison Committee on Public Services (1886) set up by Dufferin is/are correct?
Classification of the civil service into Imperial Indian Service, Provincial Civil Service and Subordinate Civil Service.
Retaining the age limit to 21.
Dropping of the terms ‘covenanted’ and ‘uncovenanted’.
Codes:
6
Consider the following statements related to Lord Curzon:
He had passed Indian Coinage and Paper Currency Act.
Passed Indian Universities Act of 1904 on the basis of recommendations of Raleigh Commission.
Doctrine of Lapse started by Lord Dalhousie was officially withdrawn by him.
Which of the above statements are correct?
7
Match the following:
Acts/Commisson
Governor General
A. Vernacular Press Act
1. Rippon
B. Rohilla War
2. Lytton
C. Inam Commission
3. Dalhousie
D. Ilbert Bill
4. Warren Hastings
A B C D
8
Consider the following statements. Which one of them is/are correct?
The Civil service was brought into existence by Lord Wellesley.
The College of Fort William at Calcutta was established by Lord Cornwallis.
Inclusion of Indians was a special feature of the Indian Civil Service since its starting days.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
9
When Napolean was moving all over Europe and also captured some of African parts, which Governor General had consolidated British Empire in India?
10
Which among these combination is correct?
Income tax was introduced for the first time in India by Lord Canning (1858).
High Courts were established in Calcutta, Madras and Delhi (1865).
The universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras founded in the period of Lord Canning.
Macaulay’s minute in education was accepted by Sir Charles Metcalfe declaring that english should be the official language of India.
11
Which Governor General was called back to England for which there was agitation and strike in India?
12
Which of the following is NOT associated with Lord William Bentick?
13
Consider the following statements:
Rippon’s Government had sought to abolish “ Judicial disqualification” based on race distinction.
Ilbert Bill sought to give Indians the same powers and rights as those enjoyed by their European colleagues in covenanted Civil Service.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
14
Consider the following statements:
Calcutta Madarsa was established by Warren Hastings in 1781.
Sanskrit college at Varanasi was established by Jonathan Duncan in 1791.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Codes:
15
What is the chronological order of the annexation of following Indian states by Dalhousie between 1848 and 1854?
Sambhalpur
Jhansi
Satara
Nagpur
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
16
Which of the following progressive reforms were introduced by the Governor General Lord William Bentick?
Suppression of infanticide and child sacrifices
Suppression of Thugi
Removal of humiliating distinctions in Recruitment to Public Services
Liberal policy towards the Press.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
17
Who said,”My policy, ever since I came to India, has been to reduce the Congress to impotence”?
18
Consider the following statements with respect to Lord Warren Hastings and identify the correct one.
19
Anthony Mc Donald commission set up by Lord Curzon was related to-
20
Consider the following statements about the Ilbert Bill and select the correct answer:
It was a bill introduced in 1883 to amend the Indian Penal Code.
It was introduced by Lord Ripon.
The main aim of the bill was to give Indian District Magistrates and Sessions Judges the right to try European and British offenders.
Codes:
21
Consider the following statements. Which one of them is/are correct?
The Hunter Commission was appointed to enquire into the matter of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
The Rowlatt Act enabled the government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
22
Which of the following events occurred during the tenure of Lord Irwin?
Appointment of Simon Commission
Boycott of Simon Commission by the Congress.
Lahore session of the Congress and Purna Swaraj resolution.
Launching of the civil disobedience movement by Gandhi with his Dandi march.
Codes:
23
Consider the following statements:
General Dyer was a British officer who, was responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar.
Rowlatt act introduced separate electorate.
MK Gandhi was a special invitee in Khilafat conference November 1919.
Hunter committee report criticized Rowlatt Act.
Which of the above statement are incorrect?
24
Decentralization Commission report of 1908 was prepared by-
25
with reference to police reforms undertaken during Lord Curzon’s Viceroy ship, find out the wrong statement
26
Who stated that "the Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions, while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise"?
27
With reference to Lord Rippon, consider the following statements:
Lord Ripon was the most popular Viceroy that England ever sent to India.
He attempted to remove racial distinction in the judiciary.
Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
28
Consider the following statements:
When partition of Bengal was annulled the viceroy was Lord Curzon.
Quit India movement was launched under the rule of Lord Linlithgow.
Choose the correct statement/s:
29
Consider the following statements:
Lord Cannings was the first Viceroy of India.
Revolt of 1857 started during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie.
First railway line connecting Bombay and Thane was constructed during the tenure of Lord Cannings
First Telgraph line between Calcutta and Agra was constructed during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie.
Choose the incorrect statements:
30
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
31
Warren Hastings revenue collection method was based on the principle of auctioning the right to collect revenue to the highest bidder. this principle he adopted from
32
Match the following:
Governor/Viceroy
Event/Policy
1. Lord Lytton
i. Lucknow pact
2. Lord Lansdowne
ii. INA Trials
3. Lord Chelmsford
iii. Vernacular Press Act
4. Lord Wavell
iv. Indian Councils Act of 1892
Choose the correct match:
33
Match the following:
List I
List II
1. First Governor General of Fort William
i. Elijah Impey
2. First Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
ii. Lord Cannings
3. First law member of the Governor General’s Council
iii. Warren Hastings
4. First Viceroy as well as the Governor General of India
iv. Lord Macaulay
Choose the correct options:
34
Match the following:
List I
List II
1. Lord Reading
i. Swadeshi movement
2. Lord Wellington
ii. Repeal of the Rowlatt act
3. Lord Irwin
iii. GOI act of 1935
4. Lord Minto II
iv. Appointment of Simon Commission
Choose the correct match:
35
To achieve the Imperial Expansionist policy Wellesley relied on three methods, find out the one which was not that method
36
With reference to Warren Hastings impeachment, consider the following statements:
The most important of them were related to the Rohilla War, the case of Nanda Kumar, the treatment of Raja Chait Singh of Benares and the pressures on the Begums of Oudh.
After a long trail which lasted till 1795, Warren Hastings was completely acquitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
37
The first state which was brought under Wellesley’s Subsidiary System in 1798 was
38
With respect to Governor General Lord Hastings, consider the following statements:
He approved the Ryotwari system of land revenue introduced in the Madras Presidency by Sir Thomas Munroe.
The importance of Indian Munsiffs had increased during his administration.
The separation of judicial and revenue departments was not rigidly followed. Instead, the District Collector acted as Magistrate.
Hastings was the Patron of Hindu College of Calcutta.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
39
With respect to various reforms of William Bentinck, consider the following statements:
In the judicial department, he abolished the provincial courts of appeal established by Cornwallis.
In the military department, he allowed the system of double Batta.
He abolished Sati system in 1829.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
40
Doctrine of Lapse was given by
41
Which Viceroy of India introduced Local Self-Government (1882)?
42
Consider the following statements:
Robert Clive was the first governor of Bengal.
Warren Hastings was the first governor general of Bengal.
William Bentinck was the first governor general of India.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
43
Consider the following statements:
Deepavali declaration was issued by Lord Irwin
It was concerned with grant of dominion status to India and holding Round Table Conferences
Choose the correct option:
44
"The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise." Who said this?
45
Which of the following is NOT associated with Lord William Bentick?
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak, G. S. Khaparde, Sir S. Subramania Iyer were the important leaders of All India Home Rule League founded in 1916.
The main objective of the Home Rule League was to obtain the status of a Dominion within the British Empire.
In 1920, the All India Home Rule League elected Mahatma Gandhi as its President and merged with the Indian National Congress.
Codes:
2
Which of the following statements regarding Home Rule League Movement is/are correct?
Tilak’s League was set up in April 1916 and was restricted to Maharashtra, excluding Bombay city, Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar.
Besant’s League was set up in September 1916 and covered the rest of India, including Bombay city.
Most of the Muslims and non-brahmins from South, did not join the agitation as they felt Home Rule would mean rule of the Hindu majority, mainly the high caste.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements. Which one of them is/are correct?
The Objective of the Home Rule Movement was a self-government for India under British Empire.
The Home Rule Movement was supported by Muslim League also.
S. Subramania was one of the leaders of the Home rule Movement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Consider the following statement with regards to freedom movement.
Annie Besant succeeded in getting the Congress and the Muslim League to support her decision to set up Home Rule Leagues.
Annie Besant launched a campaign through her two papers – New India and Commonweal – to demand self-government for India.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
5
Which of following statements are correct about the Home Rule Movement?
Idea of Home Rule was suggested by the Anne Besant in Bombay session in 1915.
During this movement, Tilak gave statement ‘‘Swaraj is my Birthright’’.
Sindhi Community participated for first time in freedom struggle during the Home Rule Movement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
6
Which of the following is correct related to the demands of the Home Rule League set up by Tilak?
Demand for Self Governance.
Demanded education to be imparted in English Language so as to empower people for government jobs.
Demand for the formation of linguistic states.
Which of the above statements are correct?
7
Who among the following launched the Home Rule Movement in 1916?
8
Consider the following statements:
Indian Home Rule League movements were inspired from French Home Rule League.
Objective of Home Rule League was educating people and pressing British for India’s complete independence.
Tilak was the first one to organize Home Rule League.
Annie Besant’s Home Rule League movement has presence all over India.
Consider the following statements in the context of the provinces in the June Third Plan of 1947:
In the Punjab and Bengal the legislative assembly would be divided into sections, one for members belonging to the Muslim-majority districts and the other for the non-Muslim districts.
The plan made provisions for setting up of a boundary commission in case of partition.
In the NWFP and Baluchistan province, the choice of joining any particular constituent assembly was to be decided by a referendum.
The Governor General was to prescribe the method and mode of ascertaining the will of the people of Sylhet, the muslim majority area of Assam.
Which of the above statements is are correct?
2
Which of the following statements could be termed as the true contents of the CR formula?
The Muslim league should cooperate with the Congress in the formation of provisional interim government for the transitional period.
The people in the Muslim dominated districts of the north-west and the east of the India shall decide, by plebiscite, the issue of separation from India.
The prerequisite of the formula was the grant of dominion status to India by the British.
Codes:
3
With reference to Indian Independence Act 1947, consider the following statements:
The partition of the country into India and Pakistan.
On 15th August 1947 India, and on the 14th August Pakistan.
A Boundary Commission would demarcate the boundaries of the provinces of the Punjab and Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4
Who sang the song "a war is coming without knife and blood" during freedom struggle
5
Consider the following statements in context of Cabinet Mission of 1946:
It recommended a federal Government.
It recommended for three groups of Indian provinces.
Sir Stafford Cripps was included in Cabinet Mission.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
6
With reference to Interim Government and First Cabinet of Free India consider the following statements.
The members of the interim government were the members of the viceroy's executive council.
Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as vice president of the council.
All the members of Interim government became members of the First Cabinet of Free India.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
7
The idea of a Constituent Assembly was first conceived and advocated by which of the following?
8
Which of the following statements is not correct about the Cabinet Mission Plan?
Which of the following statements are true in the context of the INA?
INA was founded by Captain Mohan Singh with the help of the Japanese in 1942 in Singapore.
Netaji joined INA in 1943 and proclaimed the provisional government of free India in Singapore.
The British army halted the march of the INA at Kohima and forced Netaji to retreat to Malaya.
Colonel Prem Sehgal, Colonel Gurubaksh Singh Dhillon and Major General Shah Nawaz Khan of the INA were tried for court martial at the Red fort between November 1945 and May 1946.
Which of the above statements are true?
2
Which of the following statements regarding support for INA Prisoners is/are correct?
Defence of INA prisoners in the court was organized by Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju and Asaf Ali.
Apart from the Congress, Muslim League, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, Hindu Mahasabha and Communist Party also supported INA cause in varying degrees.
On 11 February 1946, a major upsurge took place in Calcutta against the seven year sentence to INA officer Rashid Ali.
Codes:
3
Consider the following statements regarding Indian National Army (INA). Which one of them is/are correct?
The idea of the INA, to liberate India was originally conceived by Rashbehari Bose.
INA had three fighting brigades named after Gandhi, Azad and Nehru.
The Rani of Jhansi Brigade was an exclusive women force.
After annexation, Andaman and Lakshwadeep islands were named as Shaheed and Swaraj.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Consider the following statements:
Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from Congress after he failed to get elected as the President of Congress at Tripuri session, 1939.
Subhash Bose was defeated by Patabhi Sitaramaya.
Which of the above statement is/are TRUE?
5
Put in chronological order:
Naval Rating Mutiny
Cabinet Mission
Quit India Movement
Cripps Mission
Codes:
6
Find out the incorrect brigade name of INA (1942)?
7
Subhash Chandra Bose in 1943, established Provisional Indian government with head-quarters at
8
In the trial of the soldiers of INA at Red Fort in Delhi, who fought the case on behalf of the soldiers?
9
With reference to Naval Mutiny (1946) consider the following statements:
The mutineers hoisted three flags tied together on the ships which they had captured one of Congress, one of Muslim League, and the third Red Flag of the Communist Party of India.
Naval Rating of HMIS Talvar went for strike.
The mutiny started as a strike by the ratings to protest against the hardships regarding pay, food and racial discrimination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
10
"The crisis came at first as a mere military mutiny, it speedily changed its character and became a national insurrection." This statement is correct about which of the following event?
Ahmedabad mill workers were went on strike in demand of Pleague bonus.
Kheda peasants cause was supported by Gujarat Sabha.
Which of the above statement is incorrect?
2
When was the term Satyagraha first used by Gandhiji?
3
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is/are correct?
Gandhiji undertook a fast unto death in Kheda Satyagrah.
Sardar Vallabhai Patel became the follower of Gandhiji during the Kheda Movement.
Under Tin-kathia system peasants were compelled to grow barley on at least 3/20th of their land.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Which among these may be assumed as first all India level Satyagraha by Gandhi?
5
In many peasants and workers movements led by Mahatma Gandhi; many other leaders were also associated with him. In this context consider the following statements:
Champaran Satyagraha – Raj Kumar Shukla
Ahmedabad Mill workers issue – Ambalal Sarabhai
Kheda Satyagraha – Indulal Yagnik.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
6
In reference to Gandhi’s South Africa visit, consider these statement(s):
It made him aware of the capacity for sacrifice, hardship and morale in the face of repression of the poor Indian labours.
The experience helped him identify strength and weakness of his methods.
It gave him the opportunity to lead Indians across social classes.
He learned that leadership involves facing ire of not only of the opponent but the followers as well.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
7
Which one of the following events marks the entry of Gandhi in all-India politics?
8
Which of the following are correctly matched?
Author
Influence on
Mahatma Gandhi
I. John Ruskin
Concept of Civil
Disobedience
II. Ralf Waldo Emerson
Concept of
Individ-ualism
III. Henry David Thoreau
Ideas of simple
living and community living
IV. Leo Tolstoy
The idea of non-violence
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
9
Which of the following statements is/are true in the context of Rowlatt Act of 1919?
It was called the Anarchical and Revolu-tionary Crimes Act (1919).
This Act effectively authorized the government to imprison for a maximum period of six months, without trial, any person suspected of terrorism living in the British Raj.
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was justified by British government on the pretext of the Rowlatt Act.
Codes:
10
In which of the following movements Gandhiji manifested his militant mood?
Non cooperation movement
Civil disobedience movement
Quit India movement
Individual Satyagraha
Which of the above stated movement is/are correct?
11
Consider the following pairs regarding Gandhiji:
Champaran: In 1917, Satyagraha against the oppressive European indigo planters.
Kheda: Gandhiji undertook a satyagraha for peasants who were not able to pay the land tax due to failure of crops.
Ahmedabad Mill Workers: In 1917, Gandhiji undertook a fast unto death for the cause of workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?
12
Under which of the following movements Gandhiji admitted to have committed ‘Himalayan Blunder’?
13
Which of the following constitutes five virtues Gandhiji asked people to follow by pointing towards his five fingers?
Hindu-Muslim amity
Equality for women
Spinning
Removal of untouchability
Sobriety
Choose the correct option:
14
Consider the following statements:
Champaran can be considered as the first Gandhian movement in India.
Civil disobedience movement was withdrawn due to violence at Chauri-Chaura.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
15
A historian remarked about South Africa as the cradle for "the making of Mahatma". Which of the following attributes this historian is most likely to identify with the title 'Mahatma' as thought to have been developed in South Africa?
Utilization of techniques of non-violent protest known as satyagraha for the first time
Promotion of harmony between religions for the first time
For the first time made upper caste Indians acknowledge about their discriminatory treatment of lower castes and women
Choose the correct options:
16
Consider the following statements:
Rowlatt act authorizes the government to imprison any person on the basis of suspicion of involvement in terrorist activities
The main purpose behind the act was to curb growing nationalism in India
Ghandiji called this act as "black act"
Choose the correct statements:
17
No-tax campaign movement organized by peasants is associated with which of the following event/movement?
18
During Independence movement there was only one session of Congress presided by Gandhiji. Which session was this?
19
Consider the following statements:
Sarojini Naidu was the first women to preside over the Congress session during independence movement
Mahatma Gandhi suggested winding up of the congress once India gains Independence
Choose the correct statement:
20
With reference to Alluri Sitaram Raju-fighter from Andhra, cisider the following statements
He asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence
Raju talked of the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi, said he was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
21
With reference to Salt March of Gandhiji, consider the following statements
He was accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers
The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.
Consider the following statements with respect to Maratha Empire:
Maratha kingdom could alone fulfill the political vacuum created by the decaying Mughal empire at that time.
The unity amongst the Maratha sardars and the common visions and plan were the main source of their strength manifested in their successive military achievements.
Choose the correct option:
2
Consider the following statements:
Chhatrapati Shivaji collected Chauth from territories vulnerable to his attack.
Chhatrapati Shivaji collected Chauth and Shardesmukhi from territories vulnerable to Mughal attack to provide protection.
Tipu Sultan was the only king to have died in a battle against British.
Haider Ali, son of Tipu Sultan allied with various Marathas to defeat British.
The correct statement(s) is/are:
3
Consider the following statements about Chauth levied by Marathas:
It was an annual tax nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce.
It was levied on the land which was under nominal Mughal rule.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
The Portugese were the first to reach India in 1498 with an objective of capturing the spice trade of the east. Which among the following were the first to revolt against the Portugese in Indian Ocean region?
2
Consider the following statements:
Portugese came to India at a time when European economy was facing depression and therefore they explored overseas areas to accumulate more resources to support their domestic economy.
Portugese governor Albuquerque played a prominent role in making the Portugese, a strong power in India.
Choose the correct option:
3
Consider the following statements related to conditions of India and Europe in 18th century:
The social and religious conditions of India was no better than its political conditions in 18th century.
During the 18th century Europe was passing through the process of enlightenment and renaissance.
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?
4
French lost hold on Indian territories, whereas British established supremacy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect in context of Battle of Wandiwash?
5
What is the correct chronological sequence of the following events?
Khilafat Movement
Moplah Rebellion
First Civil Disobedience Movement
Congress ministries in provinces
Codes:
6
Consider the following events of Indian National Movement:
Cripps Mission
August Offer
Individual Satyagraha
Quit India Movement
Select the correct chronological order of the events using the codes given below.
7
Consider the following statements about an Indian personality:
She was the first Indian lady to become a governor of Uttar Pradesh post- independence.
She joined Home Rule league.
She was the first Indian lady to become president of Indian National Congress.
She was the Chairman of Asian Conference in 1947.
The statements given above are TRUE about which of the following personalities?
8
The general political condition of India in the late 18th century was-
Stable and economically sound.
Militarily aggressive.
Foreign policy reached the heights.
Fluid and fast deteriorating.
Codes:
9
What is the correct chronological sequence of the following events:
Guru Ka Bagh agitation
Vaikom Satyagraha
Kakori Case
Nehru report
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
10
With reference to Calcutta Corporation Act in 1899, consider the following statements:
Strength of the elected members was reduced and that of the official members increased.
More representations to the English people as against the Indians in the Calcutta Corporation.
There was strong resentment by the Indian members against Curzon’s anti-people measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
11
With reference to the Ilbert Bill, find out the wrong statements:
12
Who was the first Indian in Viceroy’s executive council?
13
With reference to C. Rajagopalachari, consider the following statements:
Rajaji undertook the famous Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha March.
He selected the route from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam in Thanjauvr district.
The March began on New Year’s Day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
With reference to Justice Party, consider the following statements:
The Justice Party came to power following the election of 1924 held according to the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.
It aimed to promote the political interests of non-Brahmin caste Hindus.
The South Indian Liberal Federation published an English newspaper called Justice and hence this organization came to be called the Justice Party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
15
The process of writing systematic ancient Indian History was first started by Vincent Arthur Smith, in doing so he made certain generalizations. Which of these statements resembles those generalizations?
Ancient Indians lacked sense of history.
Despotic rule was inseparable part of ancient Indian polity.
Ancient Indians were primarily concerned about the problems of next world i.e. life after death rather than this world.
Indians never had the experience of any kind of a self government.
Choose the correct option:
16
Arrange the following events in a chronological order:
Rowlatt Satyagraha
Home Rule League by Annie Besant
Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Non Cooperation Movement
Choose the correct code:
17
Arrange the following in correct chronological order:
Return of Clive to Calcutta to serve as Governor for second time
Black Hole Tragedy
Grant of the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the British by the Mughal emperor
Battle of Plassey
Choose the correct order:
18
Arrange the following stages of the development of Indian railways?
Modified guarantee system
State construction and ownership
Nationalization
Integration and regrouping
Old guarantee system
Choose the correct order:
19
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Strachey Commission – Famine
Cabinet Mission- transfer of India from British Govt. to Indians
Hunter Commission- Agriculture development
Cripps Mission: to secure Indians cooperation
Choose the correct option:
20
Arrange the following in events in chronological order:
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Poona Pact
Communal Award
Second session of Round Table Conference
Deepavali Declaration
Choose the correct order:
21
Different European powers entered India at different time which are– 1.English 2.French 3.Portuguese 4.Danes 5.Dutch
What is the correct chronological order of their entry into India?
22
Match the following:
Foreign trading companies
Bases in India
1. Portugese
i. Pondicherry
2. Dutch
ii. Madras
3. British
iii. Masulipatnam
4. French
iv. Panaji
Choose the correct option:
23
"The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of Government…. Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out". Gandhiji declared this at the launch of :
24
Consider the following statements:
Rani Gaidilieu was captured by British in the year 1932 for her rebellious activites but British government released her before independence
Inspired by Rani Gaidilieu in North-eastern India, another peasant movement broke out known as Khudai Khidmatgars
Choose the incorrect statement:
25
Arrange the following events of Indian Independence movement in correct sequence:
The Rowlatt Act
Chauri Chaura incident
The partition of Bengal
The Lucknow Pact
Choose the correct sequence:
26
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
27
With reference to Justice Party, consider the following statements
Party was functioning in Bombay province
It was party of the party of the non-Brahmans
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
28
Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) was establish in
29
With reference to indentured labour, find out the incorrect statement
30
The British government had appointed various committees to investigate the causes of famine and to recommend measures to prevent recurrences in future. Arrange the following committees in chronological order:
Sir Richard Strachey Commission
George Campbell Commission
Sir James Lyall Commission
Anthony McDonald Committee
Codes:
31
Before it was captured by Portuguese in 1510, Goa was ruled by?
32
The first to start a joint stock company to trade with India were the—
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
Khilafat Movement was mainly aimed to build political unity amongst Muslims and use their influence to protect the caliphate.
The Khilafat campaign was actively supported by other political parties such as the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha.
It was a major part of the Non-cooperation movement.
Codes:
2
The programme of Non-Cooperation movement had two main aspects - constructive and destructive. Which of the following are included in constructive aspects?
Nationalization of education
Promotion of indigenous goods
Enrolment of volunteer corps.
Surrender of titles and honours.
Codes:
3
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Khilafat Movement was against the treatment given to Turkey by the British.
Non-Cooperation led to boycott of British courts even by the Britishers.
After Jallianwala Bagh incident Shankaran Nair resigned from Viceroy’s Executive Council.
Which of the above statements are correct?
4
Non Cooperation Movement was launched because of
5
Why attraction for revolutionary Terrorism after Non-Cooperation Movement in India increased?
The younger Nationalists were denied permission to take part in Constructive work of No-Changers.
The revolutionaries were agitated by the Swarajists.
Sudden withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement left off many revolutionaries disillusioned with the strategy of Congress.
Gandhi and C.R.Das failed miserably to persuade many militant revolutionaries to abandon militancy during Non-Cooperation Movement.
Select the correct statement from the codes given below:
Codes:
6
Consider the following statements. Which of the following is incorrect?
7
Consider the following statements:
Non-Cooperation Movement was built on the lines of non-violence and non-cooperation..
Essence of the Civil Disobedience Movement was defying of the British laws.
For Indian women, Civil Disobedience movement was the most liberating experience to date.
Which of the above statements are correct?
8
Consider the following statements:
No-Changers and Swarajists were the two main groups which emerged within the Congress, after ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.
No changers advocated concentration on the Gandhian constructive rural work.
According to Swarajists, the Congress should enter the councils to obstruct their proceedings from within.
Which of the above statements are correct? Codes:
9
With reference to Khilafat Movement, find the correct statement:
10
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922)
It was approved by the Indian National Congress at the Nagpur session in December 1921.
Establishment of national schools, colleges and private panchayat courts.
Boycott of elections held under the provisions of the 1919 Act.
Select correct answer using code given below:
11
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Chauri-Chaura incident?
12
With reference to "no changers", find out the incorrect statement.
13
With reference to “no changers”, consider the following statements:
Ashrams sprang up where young men and women worked among tribals and lower castes and popularised charkha and khadi.
Significant work was done for Hindu-Muslim unity, removing untouchability, boycott of foreign cloth and liquor, and for flood relief.
National schools and colleges were set up where students were trained in a non-colonial ideological framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
Which amongst the following is/are identified as characteristics of non-cooperation movement?
Hindu-muslim unity
Participation of students, lawyers, workers,
Satyagraha or peaceful protest
Choose the correct option:
15
Consider the following statements;
Congress-Khilafat Swarajya party was formed by C.R. Das and M.L. Nehru
Objective of the Party was to function separately from Congress but with same vision of Indian independence
Choose the incorrect statement:
16
With reference to Non-Cooperation movement, consider the following statements
Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920 adopted.
The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921
Which of the following steps were taken during Swadeshi Movement?
People tied rakhis on each other’s hands as a symbol of unity of the two halves of Bengal.
Refusal by priests to ritualize marriages involving exchange of foreign goods.
Ganapati and Shivaji festivals were launched by Dadabhai Naoroji.
Codes:
2
Swadeshi Movement was
Launched to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.
First such an occasion where women, students and a large section of the urban and rural population of Bengal and other parts of India became actively involved in politics.
Successful in bringing various forms of mass mobilization out of which ‘crops of volunteers’ widely used.
To give great emphasis of self-reliance or ‘Atmashakti’.
Which of the above is correct.
Code:
3
One of the major planks of the programme of self-reliance accepted under Swadeshi movement was national education. To promote national education
4
Who among the following are Swadeshi leaders who dedicated themselves to labour struggles and were active in a large number of strikes during 1920s?
Aswini Kumar Banerjee,
Prabhat Kumar Roy Chowdhury
Premtosh Bose
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
5
Which of the following forms of struggle were thrown up by the Swadeshi Movement against the foreign goods?
Public burning of foreign cloth
Women refused to wear foreign bangles
Washermen refused to wash foreign clothes
Priests declined offerings which contained foreign sugar.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
6
Which of the followings are CORRECT with regard to Swadeshi Movement?
The main reason for development of Swadeshi Movement was the British decision to partition Bengal.
The Swadeshi movement in Bengal also saw the emergence of labour unions and professional agitators.
One of the major achievements of the Swadeshi movement was its contribution to anti-imperialist culture.
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
7
After 1905 Swadeshi Movement, two strands of Congress came in conflict at Surat. Consider the following statements in the context of historical Surat Split:
Moderates and extremists split at the 23rd session of Congress and reunited only in 1920 for the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Extremists in Surat session wanted to assert that self-government should be achieved through constitutional means and wanted to write the same in Congress constitution.
After moderates-extremists split, Congress leadership was taken over by Lokmanya Tilak.
Which of the above statement/s are true?
8
Who of the following had said “Swaraj for me means freedom for the meanest of our countrymen”?
9
Consider the following statements about Swadeshi Movement:
It was started with the partition of Bengal by the Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon in 1905.
This movement involved the boycott of the British products.
The movement was based on Atmashakti- self reliance.
Select the correct answer from given codes:
10
With reference to Partition of Bengal (1905), consider the following statements:
Eastern Bengal include - Dacca, Chittagong and Rajshahi division and uniting those areas with Assam.
The western half of Bengal with Bihar and Orissa remained as another province.
The government announced the idea for partition in January 1905.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
11
With reference to Bengal partition, consider the following statements:
Rabindranath Tagore wrote Banglar Mati Banglar Jol as a rallying cry for proponents of annulment of Partition.
Opposition to the partition was supported by Sir Henry John Stedman Cotton who had been Chief Commissioner of Assam.
The two parts of Bengal were reunited on 12 December 1911.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
12
Who was the leader of Swadesh Bandhab Samiti during Bengal Partition?
13
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
It was only political movement.
Boycott of government service, courts, schools and colleges.
Boycott of foreign goods, promotion of Swadeshi goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
With reference to Swadeshi Movement-National Education, consider the following statements:
Setting of the Bengal Technical Institute.
Setting up of a National Council of Education on August 15, 1907.
Emphasis on education through vernacular medium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
15
Find out the incorrect statement with respect to Swadeshi movement?
Which of the following is not related to Indigo revolt in Bengal?
Harish Chandra Mukherji’s newspaper ‘Hindoo Patriot’ published regular reports of oppression by planters.
Din Bandhu Mitra’s play ‘Neel Darpan’ highlighted the discontent of indigo cultivators.
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s Novel ‘Anand Math’ was based on Indigo Revolt.
2
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
The Kisan Sabha movement was started in Uttar Pradesh under the leadership of Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1929.
The Kisan Sabha movement demanded abolition of zamindari system and cancellation of rural debts.
N.G. Ranga, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, Rahul Sankrityayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya Narendra Dev were the important leaders of Kisan Sabha.
Codes:
3
Consider the following peasant movements during the freedom struggle:
Champaran Satyagraha
Khaira Satyagraha
Mooplah Rebellion
Bardoli Satyagraha
Arrange the above movements in the chronological order of their occurrence:
4
Tribal movements against Britishers were directed to preserve the tribal identity as the intrusion of external people were affecting the social, political and geo-economical position of the tribes. Match the following tribal revolts with their areas of occurrence.
List I (Tribal Movements)
List II (Areas covered)
A. Ho
I. Assam
B. Koli
II. Panch Mahals
C. Naikda
III. Sahyadri Hills
D. Singpho
IV. Chhotanagpur
Codes:
5
Which of the following were the factors responsible for tribal revolts/movements during the British period?
Expansion of British colonial rule in the tribal areas.
Increased penetration of the exploiters such as moneylenders, traders, etc.
British interference in the socio-religious affairs of the tribals.
Spreading the Christian religion by the Christian missionaries.
Codes:
6
Match the following:
Peasants
Leader/s movements/revolt
(I) Indigo revolt
(1) Digambar and Vishnu Viswas
(II) Eka movement
(2) Madari Pasi
(III) Moplah uprising
(3) Ali Musliyar
(IV) Tebhaga movement
(4) Abani Lahiri
Codes:
7
Match the following:
I (Leaders) II (Rebellions)
A. Barmanik 1. Bhumij rebellion B. Ganga Narain 2. Khasi rebellion C. Chakra Bisayi 3. Santal rebellion D. Sidhu 4. Khond rebellion
Codes:
A B C D
8
Which among the following were major reasons for the success of the Indigo Revolt?
There was strong initiative, cooperation, organization and discipline of the ryots.
There was no unity among Hindu and Muslim peasants.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
9
Consider the followings statements about the Eka or Unity movement?
It emerged against the grievances related to the extraction of a rent that was generally fifty per cent higher than the recorded rent.
The Eka Movement developed its own grassroots leadership.
Like the Kisan Sabha movement, it was based solely on tenants.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
10
Consider the following statements?
Workers’ and Peasants’ Parties (WPP), were organized under the leadership of people like S.A. Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed and P.C. JoshI
The WPPs functioned as left-wing Communist groups outside the Congress.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
11
Match the following:
Revolt
Region
I. Rampa Rebellion
(1) Madras Presidency.
II. Mappila Rebellion
(2) Malabar region
III. Tana Bhagat
(3) Chota movement Nagpur region
IV. Khasi uprising
(4) Sylhet
Codes:
12
Which of the following is NOT correct in case of Deccan riots of 1875.
These were anti-sowkars.
They were result of fall in cotton prices and sharp hike in land revenue 1867 onwards.
Deccan Agriculturists Relief Act of 1879 passed to strengthen judicial procedures and remedies giving limited protection of better-off peasants.
Codes:
13
Peasant movement and Uprisings in India occurred during the British rule have taken place in numerous regions within the country. Which of the following pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched?
Region
Revolt
I. Bengal
Sanyasi rebellion
II.Bihar
Chuar uprisings
III.Tamilnadu
Dewan Velu Thampi
IV. Travancore
Poligars
Code:
14
With reference to Eka Movement, find out the incorrect statement.
15
With reference to Moplah Rebellion (1921), consider the following statements:
The 1921 rebellion began as a reaction against a heavy-handed crackdown on the Khilafat Movement.
The Moplah rebellion that started as a fight against the British ended up as large-scale massacre and persecution of Hindus.
Leaders of Khilafat-Non–Cooperation Movement like Gandhi, Shaukat Ali etc addressed Mappila meeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
16
With reference to Bardoli Satyagraha, find out the wrong statement:
17
With reference to Tebhaga movement, consider the following statements:
The uprising was due to the share cropping system that prevailed in Bengal.
The uprisers asserted that they would not pay half of the produce but only one-third of the produce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
18
Consider the following statements about Moplah Rebellion :
It was directed against British policies only.
It got merged with the Khilafat movement.
It was a successful rebellion as all their grievances were addressed by the Government.
Moplah’s played active role in Civil Disobedience Movement.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
19
Who was leader of Khasi uprising of 1833?
20
With respect to Santhal rebellion, consider the following statements:
The uprising of the Santhals began as a tribal reaction to and despotic British revenue system.
It was also against the local zamindars, the police and the courts of the legal system set up by the British.
Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu were Santal rebel leaders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21
With respect to The Chuar Revolt, consider the following statements:
The Chuars lived in Jungle Mahal of north-western Midnapur.
There were three phases of uprising for three decades from 1768-69 to 1799.
The most significant uprising was the Durjol Singh led revolt in 1769-69 which was brutally put down by the government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
22
With reference to Paika Rebellion, consider the following statements:
It was an armed rebellion against the British East India Company's rule in Odisha in 1817.
The Paikas rose in rebellion under their leader Bakshi Jagabandhu.
The Paikas were the traditional peasant militia of Odisha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? :
23
With respect to Moplah Rebellions, consider the following statements:
The Moplah rebellions of Malabar were only directed against British.
The conflict arose when after Malabar’s cession to the British in 1792 and the return of the exiled Namboodiri Brahmins and Nayars, the government re-established and acknowledged their landlord rights.
The British by recognizing the Jenmis as the absolute owners of the land gave them the right to evict the tenants at will.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
24
Santhal rebellion was as important tribal uprising in modern Indian History. Which of the following statement is correct about it?
It is also called as Hool.
Rebellion occurred in the region of Chhotanagpur.
It was against Britishers and no resentment were there against Indian moneylenders.
Santhal Revolt started only after 1857 revolt.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
25
Which of the following statement is correct about Jaypal Singh Munda?
He was one of the local leader in the famous Munda Ulgulan
He was a member of the constituent assembly of India.
He was hockey player in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
26
The famous Indigo revolt of 19th century in Modern Indian History was an important peasant movement. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about it?
Raj Kumar Shukla was the local leader involved in it.
Deenbandhu Mitra's Neel Darpan did not portray the misery of Indigo planters.
Due to this movement government was compelled to set up an Indigo Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
27
Mac Donnell Commission and Strachey Commission were important commissions appointed by the colonial government during British period in India. These commissions were related to which of the following?
28
Tinkathiya system and Sharabeshi are the term associated with one of the Peasant movement in Modern Indian History. Which of the following is that movement?
29
Birsa Munda was associated with which of the following movement?
30
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was associated with which of the following movements?
Borsad Satyagraha
Bardoli Satyagraha
Pabna Revolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
31
Sanyasi Revolt was very famous movement in Modern Indian History. Consider the following statements about it:
Main cause was the religious policy of Britishers against Sanyasi.
Famine and its mismanagement of relief works was the main cause.
Anand Math Novel which has song Bande Mataram in it, is based on Sanyasi Revolt.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
32
Which amongst these constitutes the most likely cause/s for tribal rebellion during British rule in India?
British interference in Tribal way of life
Taking away tribal control over their lands and forest.
Choose the correct option:
33
Which among the following were major reasons for the success of the Indigo Revolt?
There was strong initiative, cooperation, organization and discipline of the ryots.
There was no unity among Hindu and Muslim peasants.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are CORRECT?
34
Consider the followings statements about the Eka or Unity movement?
It emerged against the grievances related to the extraction of a rent that was generally fifty per cent higher than the recorded rent.
The Eka Movement developed its own grassroots leadership.
Like the Kisan Sabha movement, it was based solely on tenants.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are CORRECT?
35
With reference to Kisan Sabha, consider the following statements
Peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra.
The movement here was against landlords only who demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents.
One of the demands was social boycott of oppressive landlords.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
36
With reference to Bhagwan Birsa, find out the incorrect statement
37
Match the following
Tribes
Place
1. Bhutia
a. Orisa
2. Bonda
b. Tripura
3. Riang
c. Utarkhand
Select the correct code
38
With reference to Khurda Uprising, consider the following statements
It held in 1817.
This revolt was led by Buxi-Jagabandhu.
One of the reason was the introduction of sicca rupee (silver currency) in the region.
The history of newspaper in India began by the publication of Bengal Gazette by James Augustus Hicky in 1780. Read the following statements about the newspapers in India:
The first newspaper in an Indian language was in Bengali - The `Samachar Darpan`.
The first Gujarati newspaper was ‘Bombay Samachar’.
The first Hindi newspaper was ‘Samachar Sudha Varshan’.
The first Oriya magazine was Junaruna.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2
Many newspapers emerged during freedom struggle under distinguished and fearless journalists. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?
I (Newspaper) II (Journalist)
3
Which of the following statements regarding Vernacular Press Act, 1878 is/are correct?
According to the provisions of the Act, the Magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made to a court of law.
At the suggestion of the Secretary of State, Lord Cranbrook, a Press Commissioner was appointed and charged with the duty of supplying authentic and accurate news to the press.
The Vernacular Press Act was replaced by the Newspapers Act during Lord Curzon’s tenure.
Codes:
4
Choose the incorrect pair.
Newspaper
Region
I. Tribune and Akhbar-i-Am
Punjab
II. Indu Prakash, Kal
Bengal
III. Som Prakash, Sadharani
Bombay
IV. Kal
Tamilnadu
5
Many prominent leaders during Indian national Movement used newspaper as a vehicle of communicating democratic ideas and ideals of the freedom struggle. In this context which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Newspaper
Founder
I. Hindu and Swade Samitran
G. Subraman Iyer
II. Amrita Bazar Patrika
Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Surendranath Banerjea
III. Hindustani and Advocate
G.P. Verma.
IV. Sudharak
G.K. Gokhale
V. Indian Mirror
Dadabhai Naoraji
VI. Voice of India
N.N. Sen
Code:
6
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about role of Press in Indian national Movement?
7
Asiatic Society of Bangal was established for-
8
Which of the following does not mention the correct match of newspaper with their founder?
Sanjeevani by K.K Mitra
Yugantar by Bhupendranath Dutt
New India By Aurobindo Ghosh
Bharat Mata by Ajit Singh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
9
Consider the following statements:
The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was formed by the associates of Raja Ram mohan Roy.
The Zamindari Association was formed to safeguard the interest of the poor peasants.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10
With reference to Indian Press Act 1910, consider the following statements:
Imposed stringent censorship and restriction on all types of publications.
The measure was put into effect in order to curtail and restrict the emerging Indian freedom struggle, particularly with the advent of World War I.
Herbert Hope Risley drafted the main substance of the Indian Press Act 1910.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
11
Consider the following statements:
Bengal Gazette was the first Indian newspaper.
Jam-i-Jahan Numa was a first Persian journal founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
Amrit Bazar Patrika was an English newspaper started by Sisirkumar Ghosh.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
12
Match the following:
List I
List II
1. RC Dutt
i. Nil Darpan
2. Dadabhai Naoroji
ii. Economic History of India
3. Rabindranath Tagore
iii. Poverty and un-British rule in India
4. Dinabandhu Mitra
iv. Gora
Choose the correct match:
13
With reference to Vernacular Press Act, consider the following statements:
In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
This Act empowered a Magistrate to secure an undertaking from the editor, publisher and printer of a vernacular newspaper that nothing would be published against the British Government.
Amrita Bazar Patrika in Calcutta had converted itself into an all-English weekly within a week of the passing of the Vernacular Press Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Mirat ul Akhbar - Raja Ram Mohun Roy
Som Prakash - Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
Satyarth Prakash - Dayanand Saraswati
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
15
Which of the following statement is not correct in context of revolutionary movement in India?
16
With reference to printing press in India, consider the statements
The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century.
From 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the Bengal Gazette.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
17
With reference to Vernacular Press Act, consider the following statements
It was modelled on the British Press Laws.
It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
Autonomous states in Rajasthan, Awadh and Rohilkhand in northern India and southern states like Hyderabad, Maharashtra, Mysore, Karanataka and Kerala were fast emerging as significant domain of power during Britishers because:
East India Company actively participated and helped in territorial expansion.
Local peasants stopped paying taxation to the State.
Provincial Governors began proclaiming themselves independent one after another.
Local provincial Governors began struggling for power and expansion of their territories.
Which of the following statements regarding the Revolutionary actions before First World War is/are correct?
In 1908 Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Khudiram Bose attempted to murder Muzaffarpur Magistrate, Kingsford.
Sandhya and Yugantar Newspapers advocated revolutionary activities.
Mitra Mela, a secret society organized by Savarkar and his brother merged with Abhinav Bharat in 1904.
Codes:
4
Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
Chapekar brothers murdered Mr Rand.
Chandra Shekhar Azad killed Saunders.
Madan Lal Dhingra shot dead Lord Hardinge.
Codes:
5
Who among these had formed ‘Abhinav Bharat Samaj’?
6
Who among the following was ‘Father of Indian Unrest’?
7
Consider the following statements about Young Bengal movement:
The movement was inspired by the Russian revolution
The movement was more radicalized than even Raja Rammohun Roy’s movements
The movement inspired its followers to think rationally and freely
Choose the correct option:
8
Consider the following statements regarding the movement under Militant Leadership:
Extremists acquired a dominant influence over the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
Moderates led movement had failed to yield results.
Which of the above statements are correct?
9
The Revolutionary movement for Indian independence is a part of the Indian independence movement comprising the actions of the underground revolutionary factions. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct?
In 1904, V.D. Savarkar organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of revolutionaries.
Rajh Behari Bose assassinated Curzon wylie in London.
Parafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose tried to kill Kingsford, but failed.
Madan Lal Dhingra Killed viceroy Hardinge
10
Consider the following.
Tarak Nath Das and G.D. Kumar established United India House.
Bhagwan Singh was a Sikh priest who openly preached gospel of violent overthrow of British rule.
First meeting of Hindu Association was held in Pandit Kanshi Ram’s house.
‘Ghadar’ organization was headquartered at Portland.
Which of the above statements are correct?
11
Komagata Maru was:
A ship on voyage to Canada which was carrying Indian Passengers.
Charted by Gurdit Singh and Indian contractor living in Singapore to carry Indians living in various places in East and South-East Asia to Vacouver.
Not allowed into Vancouver port and was cordoned off by the police.
To address the issue and fight for the rights of the passengers ‘shore committee’ was set up under the leadership of Husain Rahim, Sohan Lal Pathak and Balwant Singh.
Which of the above are true?
12
Consider the following statements regarding Modern Indian National Movement.
Anushilan Samiti and Juganter were Samitis formed during Swadeshi movement for mass mobilization.
Swadesh Bandhab samiti was secret society of revolutionaries set up by Ashwini Kumar Dutt.
Shyamji Krishna Verma, V.D. Savarkar and Har Dayal established revolutionary terrorists centres in London.
Madame Cama and Ajit Singh carried on revolutionary activities by setting up centre in Europe.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
13
Consider the following associations and find out the correct pairs-
1. Ghadar revolutionary
Harnam Singh.
2. Free Hindustan
Tarak Nath Das.
3. Circular-e-Azadi
Ramnath Puri.
4. Swadesh Sevak Home
Bhagwan Singh.
14
Many organizations were formed outside India with an aim to free India from British rule. In this context which of the following are correctly matched?
Organisation
Place
1. Swadesh Sevak Home
Vancouver
2. United India House
London
3. Hindi Association
Portland
4. Ghadar
Seattle
15
Which of the following is correct about Ghadar movement?
A weekly paper ‘Ghadar’ was started in Urdu and Gurumukhi edition.
First meeting of the Ghadar movement was at San Francisco.
Rash Behari Bose was accepted was leader of Ghadar revolt in 1915.
16
Assertion (A): The goal of the extremist leaders was Swaraj.
Reasoning (R): All the extremist leaders had a likeminded vision towards Swaraj.
17
The extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian Freedom Struggle was:
18
Jatin Das kept fast unto death in jail. What was he protesting against?
19
Match the following:
Revolutionary Group
Founder
1. Abhinava Bharat
a. Nilakanta Bramachari
2. Bharathmatha Association
b. Savarkar Brother
3. Anusilan Samiti
c. Jatindranath Bannerjee
Select the correct answer using the code below:
20
With respect to Shyamji Krishnavarma, consider the following statements:
He started in 1905 an Indian Home society-Indian House.
Provided scholarship scheme to bring radical youth from India.
The Indian Sociologist was a journal published under it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21
With reference to offshore political movement, match the following:
Group name
Place
1. Swadesh Sevak Home
a. Seatle
2. United India Home
b. Vancouver
3. Ghadar
c. San Francisco
4. Indian Home Rule Society
d. London
Select the correct code:
22
With reference to Ghadar Party, consider the following statements:
The founding president of Ghadar Party was Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna was the co-founder of this party.
In 1913, Pacific Coast Hindustan Association was founded by Lala Hardayal with Sohan Singh Bhakna as its president, which was called Ghadar Party.
The members of this party were mainly the immigrant Sikhs of US and Canada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
23
With reference to Komagata Maru incident, consider the following statements:
Gurdit Singh established a steamship company in Malaysia and leased a Japanese steamship Komagata Maru. This ship left Hong Kong in 1914 to Canada.
The Canadian authorities refused to allow the passengers to go ashore. The Komagata Maru returned and docked at Hooghly’s Budge Harbor.
The Sikhs were herded in a special train to send them to Punjab. Some of them refused and protested. The police opened fire and killed 18 people, 200 people were herded in jails.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
24
Match the following
Newspaper/Journal
Editor/Writer
1. Bandematram
a. Shyamji Krishnvarama
2. The Sociologist
b. Madam Bikaji Cama
3. New India
c. Annie Besant
Select the correct code:
25
With respect to Abhinav Bharat Society, find out the incorrect statements
26
With respect to Yugantar (Jugantar) group, consider the following statements:
It was a secret revolutionary group operated in Bengal for Indian independence.
This party was established by leaders like Aurobindo Ghosh, his brother Barin Ghosh, Bhupendranath Datta, Raja Subodh Mallik in April 1904.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
27
With reference to Delhi conspiracy case, find the wrong statement.
28
With reference to Alipore Bomb Case, consider the following statements:
This was carried by Yugantar group.
In 1908 a revolutionary conspiracy was hatched to kill the Chief Presidency Magistrate D.H. Kingford of Muzaffarpur.
The task was entrusted to Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
29
With reference to Lahore Conspiracy Case-1915, consider the following statements:
30
Consider the following statements:
Indian Republican army under the leadership of Surya Sen issued proclamation of Indian independence after Chittagong armoury seizure.
Chapekar Brother at Poona assassinated two British officials.
Choose the correct statement/s:
31
Consider the following statements:
Ras Bihari Ghosh was an extremist nationalist leader.
HN Kunzru was the founder of Seva Samiti at Allahabad.
Pt. Ishwar Chandra Vidysagar was the champion of Women emancipation.
Choose the correct option:
32
Consider the following statements about SC Bose:
He advocated for Swaraj by using force against British.
He became the Congress president in the year 1939 after defeating Pattabhi Sitaramayya.
He organized All India Forward Bloc completely separate from the Congress.
He, for the first time referred Gandhiji as “the Father of the nation”.
Choose the correct statement/s:
33
Which of the following movements or organizations or ideas had influenced Indian Independence Movement?
Irish Home Rule League
Young Italy
Red Turks
Russian Revolution
Choose the correct option:
34
Consider the following statements:
The Ghadar was a weekly newspaper published to commemorate the mutiny of 1857.
Komagata Maru incident took place during the period of Lord Hardinge II.
Choose the correct statement/s:
35
Which of the following was/were not the objective of Hindustan Social Republican Association?
To expose the weakness of Gandhian methods of non-violence.
To advocate for direct revolutionary action to achieve independence from British.
To replace British Imperialism by a Federal Republic of United States of India.
To propagate socialism in India.
Choose the correct statements:
36
Which of the following revolutionary movements were based outside India?
India House
Indian Independence League
Gadar Party
Indian Independence Committee
Choose the correct option:
37
Consider the following statement
Revival of revolutionary movement can be attributed to failure of the first non cooperation movement
Hindustan Republican Association was a moderate nationalist party under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Choose the correct statements:
38
Consider the following statements:
Abhinava Bharat was a secret society of revolutionaries formed by Bhagat Singh
Which of the following statements regarding Simon Commission are true?
One of its members was Neville Chamberlain, who subsequently became the Prime Minister of Britain.
The commission recommended that Burma should be separated from India and must have a constitution of its own.
The commission recommended that diarchy should be scrapped and Ministers responsible to the Legislature would be entrusted with all provincial responsibilities.
Codes:
2
Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are not correct?
Butler Committee was set up to suggest ways for satisfactory economic relations between Britain and British India.
Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of the GOI Act 1909.
Indian leaders opposed the Simon Commission as there was no Indian in it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
3
After the failure of the Regulating Act of 1773, Pitt’s India Act (1784) was passed by British Parliament. Read the following statements related to the Act:
The Act led to the establishment of the Board of Control to look after the civil, military and revenue affairs of the Company.
The number of members in the Governor-General’s Council was increased from three to four by inclusion of a law member.
The Court of Directors could appoint or dismiss British officials in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
4
Consider the following statements about the report of Simon Commission and select the correct answer:
The report opposed the granting of full autonomy to the provinces.
The report proposed the continuation of separate electorate system of communal representation.
The report proposed for the restructuring of central legislative assembly on the basis of federal system.
Codes:
5
Which of the following statement/s is/are CORRECT about Simon Commission report?
It suggested a Federal type of government at the centre with maximum power to central government.
It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service.
It recommended Burma to be separated from British India
Choose the correct option using the codes given below:
6
Consider the following points about Nehru Report of 1928:
It recommended universal adult franchise.
It recommended equal rights for women.
It accepted demand of separate electorates.
It demanded complete independence.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
7
Consider the following statements about the report of Simon Commission:
The report proposed the granting of full autonomy to the provinces.
It outlined that the dyarchy established in the provinces was successful.
It proposed for the restructuring of central legislative assembly on the basis of federal system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
8
Which of following was/were not recommended by of Motilal Nehru Committee?
Establishment of Unitary Government.
Elected Government in Provinces.
Establishment of Dyarchy system.
Provision of Civil Liberties.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
9
With reference to Simon Commission, consider the following statements:
The Act of 1909 included a provision for its review after a lapse of ten years.
All its seven members were Englishmen.
In a demonstration against Simon Com-mission, Lala Lajpat Rai was seriously injured in police lathi charge and he passed away after one month.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
10
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding report of the Simon Commission?
11
With reference to Nehru Report (1928), consider the following statements:
It was headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
It was formed because the Secretary of State, Lord Birkenhead, challenged the Indians to produce a Constitution.
A committee consisting of eight members was constituted to draw up a blueprint for the future Constitution of India.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
12
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Nehru Report?
13
Who had given Fourteen Points as demand of Muslim League?
14
Which of the following were the provisions of the Nehru report of 1928?
Freedom of religion
Reservation of seats to Hindus and Muslims in legislatures wherever necessary
Adult universal suffrage
Choose the correct option:
15
Consider the following statements:
Jinnah announced fourteen points after rejecting Nehru report of 1928.
Abul Kalam Azad and Rafi Ahmad Kidwai formed Nationalist Muslim Party.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
16
Consider the following statements:
Congress boycotted Simon Commission
Congress appointed ML Nehru Committee to determine the principles of a constitution for India
Choose the correct statement/s:
17
Consider the following statements in reference to Simon Commission:
Indians agitated against it because the commission suggested the partition.
Clement Attlee was one of its member who become the Prime Minister of Britain.
One of its recommendation was replacement of dyarchy with responsible government in the Provinces.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
18
Consider the following statements
British government constituted the Simon commission to study constitutional reforms in India
Congress decided to boycott all white Simon commission in its Madras session of the year 1927 presided over by J.L Nehru
Choose the correct statement:
19
Consider the following points about Nehru Report of 1928:
It recommended universal adult franchise.
It recommended equal rights for women.
It accepted demand of separate electorates.
It demanded complete independence.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
20
with reference to Simon commission, consider the following statements
Commission did not have a single Indian member.
When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’.
Young Bengal movement was founded by Henry Louis Vivian in Calcutta. The movement revolted against the existing social and religious structure of Hindu society. The ideals of the movement were:
It believed in ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity.
It urged followers to live or die for truth.
It urged for freedom of press and better treatment for Indians abroad.
Which of the above statements is/are false?
2
Lex Loci Act proposed in 1845 and passed in 1850 was
3
Match the following:
Name of Organisation
Founder
(i) Satyasodhak Samaj
(1) Mukund Rao Patil
(ii) Bahujan Samaj
(2) Jyotiba Phule
(iii) Bahiskrit Hitkari Sabha
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Harijan Seva Sangh
(4) Bhimrao Ambedkar
Codes:
4
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
Aligarh Movement was started with the aim to revive the spirit of progress within the Muslim community of India through modern education.
The Deoband movement was developed as a reaction to British colonialism in India, which was believed to corrupting the Islamic religion.
Codes:
5
Consider the following statements related to social awakening programmes held during British era:
Ambedkar founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh for the emancipation of lower caste.
Prarthna Samaj had started the shuddhi movement to convert non-Hindus to Brahmins.
Theosophical Movement was founded by Annie Besant to advance theosophy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
6
Consider the following statements related to initiatives taken for emancipation of women during British era:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s effort led to passage of Hindu Widow Remarriage Act.
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar worked for the abolition of Sati.
Mahadev Govind Ranade founded the first Indian Women University in 1916.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
7
Which of the following statements regarding Jyotiba Phule is/are correct?
Jyotiba started the Satya Shodhak Samaj (Truth Seeking Society) with the aim of securing social justice for the weaker section of society.
In 1885, he was honoured with the title of Mahatma.
He was elected as a member of Poona Municipal Committee in 1876.
Codes:
8
Which of the following statements regarding the belief of Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
It denounced polytheism and idol worship.
It discarded faith in divine incarnations and transmigration of souls.
It took no definite stand on the doctrine of karma.
Codes:
9
Consider the following statements. Which of them is/are correct?
Swami Vivekanand is known as the first modern man.
Amitya Sabha was established to propagate monotheism.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy wanted to bring national conciousness in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
10
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Jamnalal Bajaj : Satyagraha Ashram
Dadabhai Naoroji : Bombay Association
Syed Ahmad Khan : MAO College
Lala Lajpat Rai : Anushilan Samiti
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
11
Consider the following statements regarding Theosophical Society. Which one of them is/are correct?
Theosophical Society was founded by M.S. Olcott.
The Society under Annie Besant concentrated on the revival of Hinduism.
The Central Hindu College at Varanasi was founded by Annie Besant.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
12
Which amongs these wrongly matched :
Associated People - Their Role
13
What is Sanskritization :
14
Consider the following statements about Prarthana Samaj.
The Prarthana Samaj was established in Bombay by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang in 1867.
It believed in the unity of God and de-emphasised idol worship.
It emphasised on social reforms like inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage etc.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
15
Consider the following statements about Jyotiba Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj:
It aimed at complete abolition of caste system.
It aimed to spread education among women and lower caste groups.
Phule was against Sanskritic Hinduism.
It also worked for religious tolerance.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
16
‘Hinduism dies if untouchability lives, and untouchability has to die if Hinduism is to live.’ Who among the following persons said this statement?
17
Which of the following were the objectives of Indian Association formed in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee?
Creation of a strong body of public opinion in the country
Promotion of friendly feeling between Hindus and Muslims
Inclusion of the masses in the great public movement of the time
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
18
In context of Wahabi movement, consider following sentences:
It was a revivalist movement.
Their vision of society was that set by Prophet Mohammad and Caliph.
Which of the above statement is/are true?
19
Which of the following were the social reforms subjects adopted by Prarthana Samaj?
Disapproval of caste system.
Raising the age of marriage for both males and females.
Widow Remarriage.
Which of the above stated subjects are correct?
20
Consider the following statements about Theosophical Society:
The Theosophical Society was founded by Helena Blavatsky and Henry Steel Olcott in USA in 1875.
The society did not accept the Hindu belief of reincarnations.
The society worked in the field of education.
Which of the above statements are correct?Codes:
21
Match the following:
Name of organisation
Founder
I. Harijan Seva Sangh
(1) Mukund Rao Patil
II. Bahujan Samaj
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
III. Depressed classes
(3) Jyotiba Phule mission
IV. Satyasodhak Samaj
(4) V.R. Shinde.
Codes:
22
Consider the following statements:
The Deobandi movement advocated a notion of a composite nationalism.
The Wahabi movement offered the most serious and well-planned challenge to British supremacy in India from 1830’s to 1860’s.
Select the correct statement from the codes given below:
23
Dr.B.R. Ambedkar was one such leader who dedicated his entire life for the welfare of untouchables. Which of the following organizations was/were formed by him?
Bahiskrit Hitkari sabha 1924
Akhil Bharatiya Dalit Varg Sabha
Satya Sodhak Samaj
Social Service league
Select the correct statement from the codes given below:Codes:
24
Socio-Religious Reform Movements in India primarily took place in Bengal, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Punjab. In this context choose the correct pair.
Socio-Religious organization - Region
25
Who of the following leaders said, ‘no religion, no caste and no God for mankind.’?
26
With reference to the Socio religious reform movements in Indian society, which one of the following is correct?
27
With reference to Theosophical Society, consider the following statements:
The Theosophical Society was founded in New York (USA) in 1875 by Madam H.P. Blavatsky, a Russian lady, and Annie Besant, an American.
Established their headquarters at Adyar in Chennai in 1882.
Their main objectives were to form a universal brotherhood of man without any distinction of race, colour or creed and to promote the study of ancient religions and philosophies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
28
Find out the incorrect statements regarding Jyotiba Phule?
29
With reference to Vaikom Satyagraha, consider the following statements:
Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy started the movement.
The objective of the Satyagraha was to secure for untouchables the right to use a road near a temple at Vaikom in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
30
With reference to Self-Respect Movement, consider the following statements:
The aims of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’ were to uplift the Dravidians.
Aim to expose the Brahminical tyranny and deceptive methods by which they controlled all spheres of Hindu life.
Secular names given to new born babies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
31
Arrange the following socio-economic reforms of the British Period in chronological order:
Prohibition of Sati
Prohibition of Female Infanticide
Widow Remarriage Act
First Factory Act
Choose the correct order:
32
Consider the following statements about Paramhans Mandali:
Dadoba Panderung started Paramhans Mandali.
It was a secret revolutionary organization.
It was closely linked to Manav Dharma Sabha.
Dharma Vivechana contains the principle of this organization.
Choose the correct statements:
33
Consider the following statements about Theosophical society:
Ms. Annie Besant was the founder of this society.
Education of masses and research into ancient religions and philosophy was the purpose of this society.
It contributed to the revival of Hinduism in India.
Choose the correct statement/s:
34
Consider the following statements:
Nirankari movement called for purification of Sikhism to its original form.
Baba Ram Singh was the founder of Namdhari movement.
Akali movement aimed at purification of management of Sikh Gurudwaras.
Choose the correct option:
35
Which of the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy is incorrect?
36
Match the following:
List I
List II
1. Dar-ul-Ulum
i. Deoband
2. Rahnumai
ii. Lucknow Mazdayasnan Sabha
3. Muhammadan
iii. Bombay Educational Conference
4. Nadwah-ul-Ulama
iv. Aligarh
Choose the correct match:
37
The Abolition of Sati Act was passed in the year
38
Which category of population were primarily attracted to Socio-Religious reform movements of 19th century in its early phase?
Poor commoners
Illiterate masses
Intellectuals
Liberal princes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
39
Which of the following statement(s) is correct about Dayanand Saraswati?
He insisted upon ‘Let’s go back to the Vedas’.
He worked against casteism.
He worked against child marriage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
40
Satya Sodhak Samaj was established by
41
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, Jyotirao Phule and Sri Narayan Guru were the social reformers who worked for the upliftment of downtrodden in India. Which of the following statements about them are correct?
Independent Labour Party was organised by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Jyotirao Phule authored the book Gulamgiri.
Sri Narayan Guru led reform movement in Kerala.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
42
Consider the following statements about Jyotiba Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj:
It aimed at complete abolition of caste system.
It aimed to spread education among women and lower caste groups.
Phule was against Sanskritic Hinduism.
It also worked for religious tolerance.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
43
‘Hinduism dies if untouchability lives, and untouchability has to die if Hinduism is to live.’ Who among the following persons said this statement?
Match the following Acts with the provision provided by these Acts?
Act
Provision
(I) Charter Act, 1853
(1) Appointment of a Secretary of State for India.
(II) Government of India Act,1858
(2) Introduction of system of direct recruitment (merit system)
(III) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(3) Introduction of indirect election
(IV) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(4) Introduction of Portfolio system
Codes:
2
Which of the following statements regarding provisions of the Charter Act of 1833 is/are correct?
The company’s monopoly over trade with China in tea ended.
No Indian citizen was to be denied employment under the company on the basis of religion, colour, birth, decent, etc.
A law member was added as a full member of the Governor-General’s Executive Council.
Codes:
3
The significance of the Bengal Regulation of 1793 lies in the fact that—
4
After the failure of the Regulating Act of 1773, Pitt’s India Act (1784) was passed by the British Parliament. Read the following statements related to the Act:
The Act led to the establishment of the Board of Control to look after the civil affairs of the Company whereas military affairs were kept under British Government.
The number of members in the Governor-General’s Council was increased from three to four by inclusion of a Law member.
Only covenanted servants were allowed to be appointed as members of the Council of the Governor-General.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
5
British abolished Slavery in India. Which Parliamentary Act had the provision for abolition of slavery?
6
Conside r the following statements regarding the Indian Councils Act, 1892:
Number of additional members in the Imperial legislative council and provincial legislative council were raised.
Some of these additional members could be indirectly elected.
Budget could be discussed.
Choose the correct ones from the codes given below:
7
Consider the following statements about Charter Act of 1853:
The Charter act of 1853 provided for appointment of a separate Governor for the Presidency of Bengal.
Act introduced the system of competitive examination in civil services.
It abolished the power of executive council to veto bill passed by legislative council.
Which of the above statements are correct?
8
By the Charter of 1669, the East India Company had got the power to make necessary laws and issue ordinance for the first time in India for which of the following area?
9
With reference to Indian Councils Act 1892, consider the following statements:
The members could now discuss the budget without right to vote on it. They were also not allowed to ask supplementary questions.
They could ask questions on domestic matters with prior permission of the Governor General.
Governor General was not empowered to fill the seat in the case of Central Legislative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
10
Consider the following statements:
Charter Act of 1813 provided for the inclusion of a law member in the council of the Governor General.
Lord Macaulay was the first law member of Governor General Council.
Choose the correct option:
11
Consider the following statements:
The GOI Act 1858 established three High Courts in Bombay, Madras and Allahabad.
It provided for the creation of the Office of Secretary of State
The right of appointment to important offices in India was vested in the Crown.
Choose the correct statements:
12
With reference to The Regulating Act of 1773, find out the wrong statement:
13
With reference to Pitt’s India Act of 1784, consider the following statements:
A Board of Control consisting of 4 members was created. They were appointed by the Crown.
It reduced the number of the members of the Governor-General’s Council from four to three including the Commander-in-Chief.
The Court of Directors was retained without any alteration in its composition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
14
With reference to the charter act of 1833, find out the incorrect statement?
15
Consider the following statements:
Indian council act of 1861 was passed during tenure of Lord Canning as the Viceroy of India
This act is known for initiating the process of Decentralization
This act marked beginning of representative institution in India
This act provided for allotment of portfolio to council members
Which of the following is statement (s) is/are incorrect?
British Indian Association of Bengal was associated with the interests of Zamindars mainly.
Subash Chandra Bose Funded Indian Association.
M. Viraraghavachariar, G. Subramaniya Iyer, P. Anada Charlu formed Madras Mahajan Sabha in 1884.
Dinshaw Petit and K.T. Telang along with Dadabhai Framyi Formed the Bombay Presidency Association in 1885.
Codes:
2
Indian (National) Social Conference was founded by?
3
With reference to East India Association, consider the following statements:
East India Association was an organization established by some Indian students in London.
On 1 October 1866 it was established.
Dadabhai Naoroji was main organizer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4
Consider the following statements:
Asiatic society of Bengal was founded to pursue research in Oriental studies.
Sir William Jones was the founder of this society.
Lord Corwallis was the Governor General of Bengal when Bengal Asiatic Society was founded.
Choose the correct statement/s:
5
Consider the following statements:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the founder of All India Schedule Castes Federation.
Ambedkar strongly believed in Aryan invasion theory and believed Shudras as native Indian people.
Ambedkar publically condemned Manusmriti.
Choose the correct statement/s:
6
Bombay Presidency Association which was established around year 1885 was an important organisation. Which of the following were associated with this organization?
Pherozshah Mehta
K.T. Telang
Badruddin Tyabji
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
7
Consider the following statements
Mahadev Govind Ranade had no role in establishing Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
Mudumbai Veeraraghavachariar played an important role to establish Madras Mahajan Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
8
Which of the following were the objectives of Indian Association formed in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee?
Creation of a strong body of public opinion in the country
Promotion of friendly feeling between Hindus and Muslims
Inclusion of the masses in the great public movement of the time
Which of the statement/s given above is/are CORRECT?
Akbar’s buildings at Fatehpur Sikri are famous for
2
Which of the following statements regarding Mughal architecture are correct?
The Mughal architecture was an amalgam of Islamic, Persian, and Indian architecture.
Bulbous domes, slender minarets with cupolas at the four corners, large halls, massive vaulted gateways, delicate ornamentation and garden surroundings are the main features of Mughal architecture.
The practice of putting up buildings entirely of marble and decorating the walls with human figures made of semi- precious stones started under Shah Jahan
Codes:
3
Which among the following forts was not enriched by Shah Jahan with white marble fabric, series of palaces in contrast to red sandstone figures of his father and grandfaher?
4
The Mughals made distinctive contri-bution in the field of painting. During their time, Painting received great patronage. In this regard, consider the following statements:
Akbar created a separate department for paintings.
The favourite subjects of paintings were flowers, animals, birds, buildings and natural objects.
Mughal paintings reached their zenith during Jahangir’s reign.
Mughal paintings were creation of more than one painter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
5
Consider th e following statements on Mughal architecture:
Pietra Dura were made use of surface decorations in the Mughal architecture.
Lapis Lazuli was used in the interior walls or on canopies.
Sarais were largely built on a simple square or rectangular structure. These Sarais were used to provide temporal accommodation to Kings during war periods.
Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?
6
Akbar’s buildings at Fatehpur Sikri are famous for
7
The term Khanqah refers to
8
Consider the following statements regarding of Mughal paintings in India
They were mostly influenced by Persian style of painting
Most of the paintings depict natural landscapes and king’s life in personal and in court
Mughal Painting flourished during the reign of Aurangazeb
Miniature painting is a prominent feature of Mughal painting
Which of the statements given above are CORRECT?
9
Which of the following statements is/are correct:
Pahari, Kangra & Rajasthani school of Painting all three were influenced from Mughal Painting.
Bani Thani depiction is associated with the Kisangarh school of painting.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Tanjore painting is an important form of classical South Indian painting native to the town of Tanjore in Tamil Nadu.
These paintings are known for their elegance, rich colours, and attention to details. The themes for most of these paintings are Buddhas and Bodhisattvas and scenes from Buddhism mythology.
Select the correct answer code from below:
2
Amir Khusrau is also known as Tuti-i-Hind, ‘The Parrot of India’ during 13th century Delhi Sultanate. His contribution to music and poem is/are
His music and poem are unique blend of Indo-Persian culture
He invented music instruments such as sitar, tarana and Khayal for music compositions
He introduced Ghazal style of song to India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Consider the following statements in the context of the Bhakti movement in south India?
One of the important regional movements of the Bhakti tradition in Karnataka was founded by Basava who established the Virashaivas sect also called as Lingayats.
Under Chola kings two important sects developed in Bhakti tradition - the Nayanars (following the Vaishnava tradition) and Alvars (following the Shaiva tradition).
Andal, the famous woman poet of south India belonged to the Nayanars tradition.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2
Consider the following statements:
Nayanars and Alvars saints were devoted to Lord Vishnu.
They were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jains.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
3
Consider the following statements about the Virashaiva movement:
Virashaiva movement was initiated by Basavanna.
Virashaivas argued strongly for the equality of all human beings and against Brahmanical ideas about caste and the treatment of women.
They were also against all forms of ritual and idol worship.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
4
Consider the following statements about the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra:
It was a regional tradition of bhakti focused on the Vitthala, a form of Vishnu.
Janeshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram were important saints of this movement.
They followed the idea of renunciation and lived alone whole of their life.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
5
Consider the following statements about Bhakti movement:
Bhakti movement promoted the belief that salvation was attainable by everyone.
The movement is closely related to Islamic Sufism.
Women and members of the Shudra and untouchable communities were excluded in the movement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
6
Which of the following statements regarding Chishti and Soharwardi Silsilahs (order) are correct?
The Chishti order was established in India by Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti who came to India shortly after the death of Prithvi Raj Chauhan.
Nizamuddin Auliya and Nasiruddin Chiragh-i-Delhi were the most famous saints of the Chishti order.
Unlike the Chishti saints, the Soharwardi saints did not believe in leading a life of poverty.
Codes:
7
For actualization of the Truth, Sufism believed in-
8
Consider the following statements regarding Bhakti movement in India:
It was mainly a reform movement in Hinduism laying emphasis on free thinking, liberal ideas and toleration.
It grew around 7th – 8th century AD in South India.
It grew in response to the rising popularity of Islam.
Lal Ded was a Kashmiri Shaivite mystic who inspired later Sufis.
Which of the above statements are true?
9
Consider the following statements:
Vidyaranya and Bukka founded the Vijayanagara Kingdom.
Battle of Tarain was fought between Bhima II and Muizzuddin Muhammad.
Choose the correct options
10
Adi Granth doesn’t include in it the utterances of which of the following Bhakti Saints?
11
Consider the following statements:
Virashaiva or Lingayat movement was founded and led by Basavanna in Karnataka
Lingayat's questioned the caste system and theory of rebirth
followers of this movement are still dominant in the region (where it was founded)
Choose the correct statements:
12
Consider the following statements:
Sufi orders were divided into Ba-shara and Be-shara
There were no women mystics admitted in Sufi traditions
Choose the incorrect statements:
13
Consider the following statements:
Nayanars and Alvars adopted ways of Jainism and Buddhism to attain the highest goal of life
They preached their teachings in local language
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
14
Consider the following statements:
Ramananda was the follower of Ramanuja
Kabir emphasized upon the concept of the “Unity of God”
Choose the incorrect statements:
15
Consider the following statements:
Adi Granth Sahib was compiled by Guru Nanak
Dara Shikoh translated many hindu scriptures into Persian
Choose the correct statement/s:
16
With reference to the Religious history of Medieval India, the sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
Meditation and control of breath.
Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place.
Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
17
With reference to Kabir Das, consider the following statements:
He was disciple of Guru Ramananda.
Kabir Das is the first Indian saint who has coordinated Hinduism and Islam by giving a universal path which could be followed by both Hindus and Muslims.
He has always supported murti pujan in Hinduism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
18
With reference to Bhakti Movement, consider the following statements:
Bhakti movement mainly evolved in the southern part of the country.
Most of the saints of Bhakti movement were from the non-Brahman families.
Tukaram-17th-century poet-saint of the Bhakti movement in Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
19
With reference to Sikh Movement, consider the following statements:
Guru Nanak’s teachings are included in a scripture, named as the Adi Granth.
Adi Granth was compiled by Guru Nanak's third successor in the early 17th century.
Guru Nanak promoted unity irrespective of the caste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about the taxes charged by Delhi sultans and select the correct answer:
I. Zakat was a tax on the property and land of Muslims.
II. Jizya was a tax imposed on non-Muslims for the protection given by the state to their lives and property.
III. Kharaj was a land tax imposed on both Muslims and non-Muslims peasants.
Codes:
2
Consider these statements:
The first Battle of Panipat was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire, which took place on 21 April 1526 in North India. It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire. This was one of the earliest battles involving gunpowder firearms and field artillery.
The Battle of Talikota (26 January 1565), a watershed battle fought between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan sultanates, resulted in a rout of Vijayanagara, and ended the last great Hindu kingdom in South India.
The Battle of Samugarh was fought between Shah Jahan’s sons Aurangzeb (the eldest son and heir apparent) and his two younger brothers Dara Shikoh and Murad Baksh (third and fourth sons of the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan).
Which of the above statements are correct?
3
Who among the following is said to have witnessed the reigns of eight Delhi Sultans ?
4
Which dynasty ruled for longest period?
5
The term Khanqah refers to
6
Match the following:
Designation
Responsibility
I. Mir Saman
(1) In charge of Royal workshops.
II. Sadr-us-Sudur
(2) to protect the laws of the Shariat.
III. Qazi-ul-quvvat
(3) chief judicial officer
IV. Subedar
(4) governor of a province.
Codes:
7
With reference to the medieval Indian rulers, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
8
Which of the following is correct with respect to Sharqi rule-
Malik Sarwar, was the first Sharqi ruler.
He was given title of Malik-us-Sharq and thus his successors came to be called sharqis.
Jaunpur was the capital of Sharqi sultans.
Malik Muhammad Jaisi author of ‘Padmavat’ was living in Jaunpur under sharqi patronage.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
9
Consider the following statements:
The first Rupee (Silver coin) was introduced by Sher Shah.
He also issued gold coins which were called Dam.
The Patta system was introduced during the reign of Sher Shah.
Which of the above statements are correct?
10
Which of the following statements regarding Sultanate Period is/are correct?
The Perso-Arabic ragas aiman, ghora and sanam were introduced by Amir Khusrau.
Man Kautuhal in which all the new musical modes introduced by the Muslims were included, was prepared under the patronage of Raja Man Singh of Gwalior.
Codes:
11
Which one of the following is not the feature of sultanate architecture?
12
Consider the following statements about the various cultural and social features of Sultanate period in medieval history of India.
The subjects were primarily non-Muslim, designated as zimmi, ‘protected people’.
They were liable to a capitation tax (jizya) as well as subject to military conscription.
Law, generally, was administered according to the law of the parties or, if they differed, that of the defendant.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are CORRECT?
13
Which of the following factors impacted lives of forest dwellers of medieval times (around sixteenth century)?
Commercialization of agriculture
Capturing of elephants for armies
Transition from tribal to monarchial system
Choose the correct option
14
Which among the following is most likely to be correct with respect to status of women in Medieval agrarian society?
15
Nastaliq and Shikaste are the forms of :
16
Mongol invasion was imminent to both the Khaliji and Tughluq dynasty. Anticipating this rulers of both the dynasties initiated some military and administrative reforms. Consider the following statement in this regard:
Allaudin Khiljis plans were aggressive with an aim of controlling Mongolia
Muhammad Tughluqs undertook reforms just to protect his territories from Mongol invasion.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
17
Consider the following statements:
Firdausi was the court poet of Mahmud of Ghazni
The battle of Waihind was fought between Jayapala and Mahmud of Ghazni
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
18
Arrange the following rulers of Delhi Sultanate in the chronological order of their reign.
Balban
Raziya
Firoz Tughlaq
Jalaluddin Khalji
Choose the correct sequence
19
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to the throne of Delhi?
20
Which of the following is/are not a tax related to military under the Delhi Sultanate?
Zakat
Jizya
Kharaj
Khams
Choose the correct option:
21
The court customs of Sijada and Paibos were introduced by
Consider the following statements about the administration under Alauddin Khilji:
Under him the state brought the assessment and collection of land revenues under its own control.
The rights of the local chieftains to levy taxes were continued.
There were three types of taxes on cultivation, cattle and houses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
2
Maximum number of Mongol attacks occured in the period of :
3
The reforms initiated by Alauddin Khalji was aimed at all but one of the following achievements:
Choose the correct option:
4
Alauddin Khilji is known for many reforms in military, administration & market. Which of the following is correct in this context?
He introduced Dagh & Chehra, where Dagh was punishment to corrupt traders and Chehra was identity description of traders.
Ghari the house tax was imposed by Alauddin Khilji.
Diwan-i-Riyasat, the department of commerce was established by him.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
5
With reference to Khilji Dynasty, consider the following statements:
In 1308, Alauddin's lieutenant, Khusraw Khan captured Warangal, overthrew the Hoysala Empire south of the Krishna River and raided Madurai in Tamil Nadu.
Among Warangal loot, Koh-i-noor diamond was one of them.
Alauddin introduced price controls on all agriculture produce, goods, livestock and slaves in kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state was—
2
Consider the following statements:
The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank.
It was a grading system used by the Mughals to fix rank, salary and military responsibilities.
Mansabdars received their salaries as revenue assignments called jagirs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
3
Which of the following land classification in Dahsala system developed by Todar Mal under the Mughal rule are correctly matched?
Polaj - land cultivated annually.
Parauti- land left fallow for a short period (1 or 2 years).
Chachar - land left fallow for 3 to 4 years.
Banjar - land uncultivated for 5 years or more.
Codes:
4
Consider the following statements regarding the administrative arrangement during Mughal emperor Akbar’s reign, and choose the incorrect ones:
The revenue department, headed by a wazir, was responsible for all finances and management of jagir and inam lands.
The head of the military, Mir Bakshi, was appointed from among the leading nobles of the court. The Mir Bakshi was in charge of intelligence gathering, and also made recommendations to the emperor for military appointments and promotions.
The mir saman was in charge of the imperial household, including the harems, and supervised the functioning of the court and royal bodyguards.
The judiciary was a separate organization headed by a chief qazi, who was also responsible for religious beliefs and practices.
Codes:
5
Find the correct chronology of the following Mughal Emperors:
Farrukh Siyar
Jahandar Shah
Muhammad Shah
Ahmad Shah Bahadur
Codes:
6
Consider the following statements about the revenue system during Mughal period:
The revenue system was known as Dahsala or zabati system.
Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops.
It was prevalent in all provinces under Mughal Empire.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
7
Who among the following ladies wrote a historical account during the Mughal period ?
8
The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in—
9
Which of the following statements are correct?
The portion of the actual produce fixed as state’s share under the Zabti System of Mughals was one-third.
The most important source of information about the agrarian conditions during Mughals is Ain-i-Akbari.
Daftari bigha was the unit of measurement of land in Maratha dominions.
Codes:
10
In reference to the Akbar’s policy towards religions, which of the following are correct?
He abolished the pernicious practice of enslaving the prisoners of war and converting them to Islam.
He abolished the pilgrimage tax on Hindu Pilgrims visiting their holy shrines.
He abolished the jizya.
He allowed his Hindu queens to install and worship images in his own palace.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
11
Zabti sytem deals with
12
Consider the following statement with respect to Mansabdari system:
Babur, Akbar, Jehangir and Shahjahan were associated with this system.
The system aimed at organizing the nobility as well as the army to enable the expansion of empire.
Choose the correct option:
13
Consider the statements regarding Din-e-Ilahi. Which of the following is NOT true?
14
Jagirdari system during Mughal administration was land revenue system. In this system Hasil was
15
Match the following terms with respect to Mughal era usage:
Term
Meaning
1. Raiyat
i. Accountant
2. Jins-e-kamli
ii. Village Headmen
3. Muqaddam
iii. Perfect Crops
4. Patwari
iv. Peasants
Choose the correct match:
16
Consider the following statements;
Sulh-i-kul were a set of religious instructions aimed at promoting Mughals religion without force
The abolition of Jizya and Pilgrimage tax signified the importance of Sulh-i-kul in state policies
The essence of the policy of Sulh-i-kul can be found in the Constitution of India.
Positions and rewards awarded to persons of different descents (race or religion etc.) also indicate the prominence of the policy of Sulh-i-kul in Akbar's court.
Choose the correct statement/s:
17
Which amongst the following constitutes the pillars of Mughal political system?
Military power
Centralized administration
Effective taxation policies
Policy of cultural accommodation
Choose the correct option:
18
Consider the following statements:
Mughal chronicles contained elaborate account of the socio-cultural-economic life of their subjects
Mughal court chronicles were written in Urdu which was promoted by Akbar himself
Choose the correct statement/s:
19
Consider the following statements:
Abu Fazl was the court historian of Akbar who authored Akbarnama
Ain-i-Akbari was the last book of the Akbarnama
Badshah Nama was authored by Badayuni
Choose the correct statement/s:
20
"Extensive scientific estimation of land was conducted and various rules were made for land revenues along with the appointment of enforcement authorities during Mughal times". This statement most likely indicates which amongst the following?
21
Consider the following statements:
First battle of Panipat marked the beginning of Mughal empire
Battle of Khanwa weakened the position of Mughal empire
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
22
Consider the following statements about Akbar:
He introduced mansabdari system
He adopted land revenue assessment system of Sher Shah Suri
His system of Government was religious in nature.
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
23
Which amongst the following is not a revenue assessment method/system either adopted or introduced by Akbar?
24
Khalisa and Inam, during Mughal times, were used to refer to:
25
Consider the following statements:
Akbar’s, largely, cordial relations with Rajput states were primarily based upon matrimonial alliances
Sulh-kul was a Military policy followed by Akbar
Choose the correct statement/s:
26
Consider the following statements:
The battle of Dharmat was fought between Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
Daulat Khan Lodi invited Babur to invade India
Choose the correct statement/s:
27
Which of the following is correct about Ibadat Khaana of Akbar?
It was the personal prayer hall for Akbar
It was built in Fatehpur Sikri
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
28
Mahzarnama the famous decree of 1579 of Akbar which was very important milestone of Akbar's policy is largely related with
29
Mansabdari system is considered as an important administrative reform. Which of the following is correct about it?
A mansabdar could be asked to perform any civil or military service.
A mansabdar was paid salary in cash.
The mansabdari system was not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
30
Battle of Khanwa (On March 17, 1527) was fought between?
31
Title of ‘Vikaramajit’ to Hemu was given by whom?
32
With reference to Battle of Sarangpur-1561, consider the following statements:
It was the expedition against Malwa ruler Baz Bahadur.
It was led by Adham Khan, general of Akbar
After end of the battle Baz Bahadur, was enrolled as a Mughal mansabdar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
33
With reference to Akbar’s new land measurement system (known as the zabti system), consider the following statements:
It covers from Lahore to Allahabad, including Malwa and Gujarat.
The shown area was measured by means of the bamboos attached with iron rings.
1/3rd share of the average crop production was apportioned to the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
34
There were three land measurement systems existed in Akbar’s time, which option given below is not one of them?
35
With reference to Akbar’s Mansabdari system, consider the following statements:
Under the mansabdari system, every officer was assigned a rank (mansab).
Princes of the blood received higher mansabs.
Out of his personal pay, the mansabdar was not expected to maintain a corps of elephants, camels, mules, and carts, which were necessary for the transport of the army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
36
The mansabs (ranks) were categorized as:
‘zat’ means personal. It fixed the personal status of a person, and also his salary.
‘sawar’ rank indicated the number of cavalrymen (sawars) a person was required to maintain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
37
Given below are the important office and title names during Akbar’s era. Find the wrong match?
38
Among twelve subas of Akbar (in 1580) given below, which was not one of them?
39
With reference to Battle of Haldighati-1576, which of the following statement is correct?
40
With reference to social reforms steps taken by Akbar, consider the following statements:
He stopped sati (the burning of a widow), unless she herself, on her own free will, determinedly desired it.
Akbar raised the marriage age, 14 for girls and 16 for boys.
Akbar restricted the sale of wines and spirits
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
41
For promoting Trade and Commerce Mughals have taken various steps, select the option which is not in this regard
42
Which Mughal ruler was regarded as ‘Zinda Pir’ (Living Saint)?
43
With reference to religious policy of Aurangzeb, consider the statements:
Aurangzeb prohibited the kalma being inscribed on coins.
Aurangzeb banned the festival of Nauroz, as it was considered as Zoroastrian practice favored by the Safavid rulers of Iran.
Aurangzeb appointed Muhtasibs in all the provinces. Their major work was to see that people lived their lives in accordance with the sharia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
44
With reference to Treaty of Purandar (1665), consider the following statements:
Signed between Mughal empire and Maratha ruler Shivaji.
Shivaji's son Sambhaji was tasked with the command of a 5,000-strong force under the Mughals.
Shivaji agreed to visit Agra to meet Aurangzeb for further political talks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements related to Tughlaq dynasty:
Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq created a welfare society by working for the betterment of peasants, increased land for cultivation, improved transport, communication and postal system.
Feroz Shah Tughlaq replaced the silver coin released by Iltutmish of the Slave Dynasty by the bronze token coins to overcome a shortage of silver in India.
To improve education process, madrasa system was promoted by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2
Whose period showed no mongol attack?
3
Who founded the city of Jaunpur on Gomti Bank?
4
Who introduced Token Currency in Delhi Sultanate?
5
Which dynasty ruled for longest period?
6
Battle of Tarain, which is regarded as one of the turning points in Indian history was fought between
7
Who introduced Diwan-i-Kohi in Delhi Sultanate?
8
Which of the following statements regarding Iqta system are correct?
During Sultanate period, the whole empire was divided into several large and small tracts of land, called the iqtas for the purpose of administration and revenue collection.
The iqtas were assigned to nobles, officers and soldiers and were transferable.
During the reign of Iltutmish and afterwards, the grants were not hereditary but it was made hereditary in nature by Ghiyasuddin Tughluq.
Codes:
9
Which one of the following Sultans extended agricultural loans called Sondhars to the poor peasants for promoting cultivation?
10
Consider the following statements about Muhammad Tughluq:
He shifted his capital from Delhi to Deogir
He introduced token currency
He initiated agricultural reforms
Choose the incorrect statement/s:
11
Who amongst the following was the last Tughluq ruler of Delhi sultanate?
12
Consider the following statements in context of Tughlaq dynasty:
Experiment of Token currency was done under Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
Diwan-i-Khairat was founded by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
Diwan-i-Bandagan was founded by Firoz Tughlaq
Which of the statement(s) above is are not correct?
In the context of Vijayanagra Empire which of the following is not true-
2
Which amongst the following is/are not a dynasty related to Vijayanagara empire?
Sangama Dynasty
Tuluva Dynasty
Aravidu Dynasty
Saluva Dynasty
Choose the correct options:
3
Consider the following statements and select the correct statements.
Lepakshi paintings were associated with Vijayanagar.
Gajendra Moksha mural painting is associated with Gujarat.
Sittanavasal painting is associated with Jainism.
Bagh & Ajanta paintings both have Buddhist elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
4
Consider the following statements:
Perundanam and Sirtanam were the different officials under the Vijayanagar administration.
Tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land under Krishna Deva of Vijaynagar.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
5
Among the four dynasties that ruled over Vijaynagar in medieval India, in given option which was not one among them?
6
With reference to famous king Krishnadeva Raya of Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements:
He belongs to Saluva Dynasty.
Krishna Deva Raya defeated the Deccan Sultans in the battle of Diwani.
He helped the French to conquer Goa from the Bijapur rulers in 1510 and maintained friendly relations with them.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
7
Who was the writer of Telugu book Amuktamalyada and a Sanskrit play, Jambavati Kalyana?
8
With reference to Ayagar system in Vijayanagra Empire, consider the following statements:
According to this, every village was a separate unit and its affairs were conducted by a team of 12 functionaries who were collectively known as the Ayagars.
They were granted tax-free lands (manyams) which they were to enjoy in perpetuity for their services.
The ayagars could also sell or mortgage their offices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
9
Who wrote Sanskrit poem Madhuravijayam in 14th century?
Second Schedule of Constitution of India does not contains provision with regard to which of them?
2
Consider the following statements with regard to Schedules of Constitution of India:
Sixth Schedule contains the provisions related to the Administration of Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Sikkim and Tripura.
Third Schedule contains form of Oath and Affirmation of President and Vice President of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
3
Consider the following regarding Fifth Schedule of Constitution of India
The Schedule provides for constitution, Powers and Functions of District Councils and Regional Councils in Fifth Schedule districts.
President may increase scheduled area in a state after consultation with the governor of that state.
Governor can make regulations regarding the Fifth Schedule areas on his own discretion.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
4
Consider the following with respect to disqualification of members as per Tenth Schedule:
An Independent member of the House becomes disqualified if he joins any Political Party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes seat in the House.
A Nominated member of the House becomes disqualified if he joins any Political Party if joins any party after being Nominated to the membership of the house.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
5
Which of the following is the not the part of state list of seventh schedule?
6
Match the following
A. Schedule 3
I. Provisions relating to the administration of SC and STs
B. Schedule 4
II. Languages recognized by constitution
C. Schedule 5
III. Provisions relating to administration of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
D. Schedule 8
IV. Allocation of seats to Rajya Sabha
V. Forms of Oath and affirmation
A B C D
7
The temperament to protect and improve the natural environment is reflected in which of the following parts of Indian Constitution?
Part 3
Part 4
Part 4A
Choose the correct option:
8
Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories?
9
Consider the following statements with regard to schedule IX of Indian Constitution:
The first Amendment added the ninth schedule to the Indian constitution.
It was introduced by the Nehru Government to address judicial decisions and pronounce-ments especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
10
Consider the following statements:
The Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution contains eighteen functional items.
The Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution contains twenty nine functional items.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
11
Match the following:
(Schedule)
(Provision)
A.Second Schedule
(I)Anti defection law
B.Tenth Schedule
(II)Emoluments and allowance of judges of S.C and H.C.
C.Fourth Schedule
(III)Administration of schedule areas and schedule tribes.
D.Fifth Schedule
(IV)Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to different states.
Code:
12
Consider the following features of the administration provided in the 5th schedule:
It deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas as well as the schedule Tribes in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The governor is authorized to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or the state legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area.
The governor is authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes. All such regulations must have the assent of the President.
The tribal areas under this schedule are to be administered as autonomous districts.
Which of the above statements are Correct?
13
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(Schedule) - (Provision)
14
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes under the 5th Schedule can be altered by the Parliament through ordinary legislation.
The 5th schedule of the Constitution contain provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
Codes:
15
In the context of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
Sixth Schedule deals with administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
Members of the District council of each autonomous district, hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
The District council is empowered to assess and collect land revenue within their territorial jurisdiction.
The District council can also constitute a court for trial of suits and cases between the tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
16
In the context of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
Sixth Schedule deals with administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Nagaland.
The District council are empowered to assess and collect land revenue within their territorial jurisdiction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
17
Which of the following are correct in the context of Sixth Schedule of Constitution of India?
Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India covers tribal areas only in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, and Nagaland.
It provides for a District Council for each autonomous district consisting of not more than thirty members.
The District Council for an autonomous district has the power to levy and collect taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments.
Select the correct answer using the words given below.
18
The criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule is:
Economic backwardness of the area as compared to neighbouring areas.
Compactness and reasonable size of the area.
It should be a viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk.
Which of the above statements are correct?
19
Who among the following is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area?
If any territory becomes part of India its citizens will be citizens of India
By naturalization
Select the correct answer from the code below:
2
What is global citizenship?
The concept that our state can provide us with the protection and rights which we need to live with dignity in the world today.
A notion that makes it easier to deal with problems which extend across national boundaries and need cooperative action.
Choose the correct Statement:
3
The Constitution adopted by India has an essentially democratic and inclusive notion of citizenship. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true about citizenship?
The provisions about citizenship in the Constitution are found in Part 2.
The citizenship can be acquired by birth, registration or descent.
The citizens of external territory incorporated by India have to apply for Indian citizenship through naturalization.
Choose the correct option:
4
Consider the following statements about provision of Dual citizenship in India:
People have nationality as citizen of India and the foreign country.
Dual citizenship individual has voting rights in India.
They can be elected to public office.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
5
What is global citizenship?
The concept that our state can provide us with the protection and rights which we need to live with dignity in the world today.
A notion that makes it easier to deal with problems which extend across national boundaries and need cooperative action.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
6
The Constitution adopted by India has an essentially democratic and inclusive notion of citizenship. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true about citizenship?
The provisions about citizenship in the Constitution are found in Part V.
The citizenship can be acquired by birth, registration or descent.
The citizens of external territory incorporated by India have to apply for Indian citizenship through naturalization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
7
Under which category citizenship of India is not lost?
8
Which of the following ways are prescribed by the Citizenship Act of 1955 for acquiring Indian citizenship?
By Descent
By Birth
By Naturalisation
By Incorporation of Territory
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
9
The Constitution of India provides single citizenship for the entire country and the citizens enjoy all civil and political rights. A person can lose Indian citizenship either by the process of Renunciation; Termination or Deprivation. Read the following statements with respect to the clauses specified under Citizenship Act, 1955 for the process of deprivation.
The citizen has, within ten years after registration or naturalization, been sentenced in any country to imprisonment for a term of not less than two years;
The citizen has shown disloyalty or disaffection towards the Constitution by an Act or speech.
Bills that are passed by Parliament by simple majority.
Bills that have to be passed by parliament by the special majority prescribed in Article 338(2) of the Constitution.
Bills that have to be passed by parliament by the special majority as prescribed in Article 368 and also to be ratified by not less than half of the state legislature.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
2
Which of the following is basis for amendment of the Constitution?
3
Consider the following statements with regards to 97th Constitutional amendment:
It made the right to form co-operative societies a Fundamental Right by amending Article 19.
It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on Promotion of co-operative societies.
It added Part IX into the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
4
Consider the following statements with respect to co-operative societies
There is no maximum ceiling for the number of directors of co-operative societies as per 97th Constitutional amendment.
State legislature can make provisions for the co-option of persons having experience in the field of banking, management, finance or specialization in any other field as members of the board.
Superintendence, direction and control of elections to cooperative societies is vested upon State Election Commission by the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
5
Which among the following does not require the states’ ratifications for amendment?
6
Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Constitutional Amendment Bill?
7
What is/are true for a Constitution Amendment Act?
After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in State legislatures, a referendum is required for ratification of the amendment.
When an amendment bill goes to the President for his assent, the President can send it back for reconsideration
Sovereignty of elected representatives is the basis of the amendment procedure.
8
When an amendment requires ratification by states, which of the following hold true?
simple majority of the State legislature is sufficient
consent of more than half the States is required
Choose the correct option:
9
Why have 38th, 39th and 42nd amendments been the most controversial amendments so far?
They were made in the background of internal emergency declared in the country from June 1975.
They sought to make basic changes in many crucial parts of the Constitution
These amendments were seen as attempts by the ruling party to settle scores with opposition parties.
Choose the correct option:
10
Consider the statements about the procedure for amendment to the constitution.
Bill requires the prior permission of the president of India before being introduced in either of the houses of the parliament.
The amendment can be introduced only by the introduction of the bill for the purpose in either house.
The bill must be passed in each house separately by a special majority
If there is a disagreement between the houses then a joint sitting of the two houses for the purpose of deliberation of the bill can be called by the president.
Which among the following is correct regarding procedure for amendment to the constitution?
11
If a constitutional amendment bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must also need to be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states. Which among the following requires such a procedure during amendment?
The election of president
The extent of executive and legislative power of the Union and the states
Matters concerning Supreme Court and High courts
Representation of states in the parliament
Choose the correct option:
12
Which of the following is/are true for for the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368?
An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament
The bill can be introduced only by a minister and not by a private member.
The bill requires prior recommendation of the President for introduction in the House.
In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, President summons a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
Options:
13
In which of the following matters, a constitutional amendment is not possible without the ratification of half of the state legislatures?
Election of the President
Representation of states in Parliament
Any of the lists in the 7th schedule
Abolition of the legislature council of a state
Select the correct code:
14
Which of the following is/are true for the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368?
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
The bill can be introduced only by a minister and not by a private member.
There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
Select the correct code:
15
Which of the following provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament?
Emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
Rules of procedure in Parliament.
Use of English language in Parliament.
Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
Select the correct code:
16
Which of the following provisions do not require a constitutional amendment?
Abolition or creation of states
Abolition or creation of legislative council in state.
Change in second schedule
Delimitation of constituencies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
17
Which of the following ministry’s existence and creation can be traced back to the provisions of Charter Act of 1833?
18
The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 is related to
19
What do you understand by negative liberty?
It seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable and free from external interference.
It recognizes that one can be free only in society and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
20
The architects of Indian Constitution rejected the doctrine of:
21
Match the following pairs:
Constitutional Provisions
Constitutional Amendment
I.Addition of Tenth Schedule
A. 52nd Amendment
II. Reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years
B.61st Amendment
III.Lays down 10 Fundamental Duties for all Citizens
C.42nd Amendment
IV.Deletion of Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights
D.44th Amendment
Select the correct answer from below:
22
Which of the following constitutional amendments provides that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
23
What is incorrect with respect of Metropolitan Planning Committee in view of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
24
Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
Multiple procedures for amendment
State not empowered to initiate amendment
Certain amendment have to be passed by state legislature
The joint sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding constitutional amendments
Select your answer from the codes given below:
25
Which of the following, if amended, would have a bearing on democratic decentralization, as envisaged in the Indian Constitution?
Preamble
Part IV
Part IX
Seventh Schedule
Eleventh Schedule
Choose the correct code(s):
26
Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Constitutional Amendment Bill?
27
Which of the following is not correct regarding the Constitutional amendment Bill?
28
In the Constitution of India, provisions relating to the formation of new States can be amended by
29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Supreme Court ruling in Kesavananda Bharati case?
It has set specific limits to the Parliaments’ power to amend the Constitution by giving the doctrine of “basic structure” of the Constitution.
It places the judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure.
It allowed the Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution.
The judgment gave power to judiciary to practically amend the Constitution without a formal amendment through judicial interpretation.
Codes:
30
Consider the following statements regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment:
It limits the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and the States
According to this, size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and the States should not be more than 15% of the numbers in the Lok Sabha or the State Legislature
By this amendment, the Right to Education for children of 6 to 14 years was made a Fundamental Right
The most suitable explanation of Constitutionalism is
2
In a democracy, the very basic purpose of constitution is
3
The meaning of secularism in Indian context is
State has no official religion.
State provides equal protection to every religion.
All individuals have the right to pursue religion of their choice.
State and religion are integral.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
4
Democracy in Indian context means
Political democracy
Economic democracy
Social democracy
Select the correct answer from the code below:
5
As per Prof. A.V. Dicey, Rule of law means
6
Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric federalism?
7
Which of these provisions of the constitution relates to separation of powers?
Article 50
Article 121
Article 122
Article 211
Article 212
Select the correct answer from the code below:
8
Which of the following is/are unitary or nonfederal features in the Indian Constitution?
Single Constitution
Independent Judiciary
Single Citizenship
Bicameral legislature at the Centre
Select the correct answer using the code below:
9
Consider the following pairs:
Committees of Constituent Assembly
Chairman
1. Committee for negotiations with states
Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Drafting Committee
B. R. Ambedkar
3. Rules of procedure committee
Rajendra Prasad
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
10
Constitution of India is described as a “Living document“ by many Constitutionalists because
It is flexible to the situations arising with changing times
It is easily amendable
It is Highly flexible
Select the correct answer from the code below:
11
Separation of power in Indian context is based on
12
Which of the following statement is correct?
13
Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
Multiple procedures for amendment
State not empowered to initiate amendment
Certain amendment have to be passed by state legislature
The joint sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding constitutional amendments
Select your answer from the codes given below:
14
Consider the following statements:
A country can have constitutionalism even when there is no constitution with it.
The United Kingdom does not have a written constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?
15
Which of the following, if amended, would have a bearing on democratic decentralization, as envisaged in the Indian Constitution?
Preamble
Part IV
Part IX
Seventh Schedule
Eleventh Schedule
Choose the correct code(s):
16
In the context of Indian political system, which of the following trend(s) is/are the manifestation of federalism?
Territorial disputes between states
Demand for new states
Rise of regional Political Parties
Inter-state river dispute
Choose the correct code(s):
17
Which of the following parts of the Constitution is/are applicable to foreign nationals?
Fundamental Duties
Right to freedom and Speech
Right to equality
Choose the correct code(s)
18
Consider the following parts of the constitution:
Preamble
Part III
Part IV
Pat IVA
Which of the above is/are integral in reinforcing secular character of Indian Constitution?
19
Which of the following is the similarity of both Indian and British parliamentary systems?
20
Consider the following regarding ‘Basic structure’ of the constitution.
Supreme Court came up with this doctrine in Golaknath case
There is a clear list of provisions in the Constitution which comes under basic structure
All Fundamental Rights comes under basic structure of the Constitution
Choose the correct code(s)
21
Consider the following
Cabinet committees are mentioned in the Constitution
Only cabinet ministers are included in these committees
Choose the correct code(s)
22
The architects of Indian Constitution rejected the doctrine of:
23
Which of the following is not the provision under the GOI Act of 1858?
24
He was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly and prepared the draft of the Preamble based on Objective Resolution passed by the Constituent Assembly.
25
What does the word “Sovereignty” as given in Preamble to Indian Constitution means?
India is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external)
India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
India’s continuance with membership of the Commonwealth of Nations constituted some limitation on her sovereignty.
It implies that India will be a dominion of Britain for some time to come after Independence
Choose the correct option:
26
Which of the following constitute fundamental elements of democracy?
More than one political parties freely competing for political power
Political offices not confined to any privilege class
Periodic elections based on universal adult franchise
Protection of civil liberties
Independence of the Judiciary
Choose the correct option:
27
Arrange the below in Order of precedence for the Republic of India.
Chief Justice of India
Governors of states of India (within their respective States)
Leaders of the Opposition
Former Presidents
Choose the Correct Sequence:
28
What were the changes made by The Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the position of the Assembly?
The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body.
The Assembly had a single purpose of working as a legislative body for making of a constitution for free India
The Assembly was a democratic and secular body consisting of the members of Muslim League as well
Options:
29
Why was “January 26” specifically chosen as the ‘date of commencement’ of the Constitution?
30
What does Article 1 imply?
Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states
No state has the right to secede from the federation
India is federal in form but unitary in spirit
Options:
31
Arrange the following Lists according to their predominance.
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
Options:
32
What is true for the Government of India Act, 1935?
The Act was retroactively split into The Government of India Act 1935 and The Government of Burma Act 1935.
It provided for a Federal Court. Provinces and the states joining the Federation.
It granted limited franchise on the basis of tax, property and education.
It provided for separate electorates for depressed classes, women and labour.
Options:
33
What are the provisions of Constitution of India 1949?
There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Options:
34
What are the federal features of the Constitution?
The Constitution is a written document.
The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.
The Constitution is flexible.
The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House and a Lower House.
Options:
35
Which of the following is true for Indian democracy?
The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy.
India practices direct democracy where the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power.
Independence of judiciary is a manifestation of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
Options:
36
Which of the following provisions of Constitution of India reflects the secular character of the Indian state?
Article 14
Article 16
Article 29
Article 44
Options:
37
What changes were made by the Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the position of the Assembly?
The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body.
The Assembly also became a legislative body.
The Muslim League members hailing from the areas included in the Pakistan withdrew from the Constituent Assembly for India.
Select the correct code:
38
Which of the following is incorrectly matched:
39
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Constituent Assembly:
40
Which of the following were the members of Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
Syed Mohammad Saadullah
S. Varadachariar
Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
Select the correct code:
41
Which factors have contributed to the large size of our Constitution?
The influence of the Government of India Act of 1935.
Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states except Jammu and Kashmir.
The vastness of the country and its diversity.
Dominance of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly.
Select the correct code:
42
Which of the following parts of the Constitution mentions the doctrine of the “basic structure” of the Constitution?
Preamble
Fundamental Rights
Directive principles of state policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
43
Which of the following can be considered valid under the Indian concept of “Secularism”?
The state should not promote officially any particular religion.
There is no discrimination at all by the state, whether legal, administrative etc. among religions
The state does not intervene in any religious matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes:
44
For the first time, the demand for Constituent Assembly, elected on the basis of adult franchise, was finally accepted in principle by the British in
45
Which of the following body enjoy Constitutional Status?
46
The Indian constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures. Consider the following in this regard:
Judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature.
The legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges.
Parliament can never discuss the conduct of judges.
The judiciary has the power to penalize those who are found guilty of contempt of court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
47
The values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle are embedded in which of the following?
48
Which of the following are considered as the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India?
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Attorney General of India
Election Commission
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Union Public Service Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
49
Which of the following features have been taken from Government of India Act of 1935?
Legislative procedure
Public Service Commission
Federal Scheme
Parliamentery privileges & Bicameralirm
Choose the correct option:
50
Which writ is issued by the court to a public official, public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government asking them to perform their duties which they have refused to perform?
51
Which of the following is not the provision under the GOI Act of 1858?
52
The temperament to safeguard public property and to abjure violence is reflected in which of the following parts of Indian Constitution?
Part III
Part IV
Part IV A
Choose the correct option:
53
Who was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly and prepared the draft of the Preamble based on Objective Resolution passed by the Constituent Assembly.
54
We often describe our Constitution as a living document. What does that mean?
This document keeps responding to the changing situations and circumstances arising from time to time.
The Constitution responds to experience.
It is open to various interpretations
Choose the correct option:
55
Consider the following regarding ‘Basic structure’ of the constitution:
Supreme Court came up with this doctrine in Golaknath case
There is a clear list of provisions in the Constitution which comes under basic structure
All Fundamental Rights comes under basic structure of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
56
Which of the following provisions with regard to secular character of Indian state have been provided in the constitution?
No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for promotion of a particular religion.
Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs.
The term secular was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
57
Which among the following is/are correct in relation to federal and unitary features of Indian constitution?
Written constitution and supremacy of constitution are federal features.
Non-indestructible nature of states and single constitution are unitary features.
Codes:
58
What are the federal features of the Indian constitution?
The written constitution specifying the structure, organization, powers and functions of both the Central and the State governments.
States are not indestructible.
The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.
The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court.
59
Which of the following factors limits the sovereignty of Indian Parliament?
Written constitution
Judicial Review
Fundamental Rights
Federal system
60
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State?
Article 16
Article 25
Article 26
Article 44
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
61
Factors that contributed to the growth of cooperative federalism in India are
Union Sate legislative relations
Union State collaboration in economic matters
Dynamics of electoral politics
Compulsion of developmental finance
Select the correct code:
62
Which of the following is a feature of Indian constitution?
63
Federalism is part of the basic structure of constitution. Which of the following asserts Indian Federalism?
64
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched regarding the Committees to deal with different tasks of constitution making in the country?
65
Which of the following terms not included in a ‘unity of trinity’ by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in constituent Assembly?
66
Consider the following statements about the unitary features of Indian Constitution:
Integrated judiciary is the unitary feature.
Single and flexible Constitution is also a unitary feature.
Bicameralism is also a unitary feature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
67
Consider the following parts of the constitution:
Preamble
Part III
Part IV
Part IVA
Which of the above is/are integral in reinforcing secular character of Indian Constitution?
68
Under which of the following conditions the UPSC can serve the needs of a state?
With the approval of the President.
When requested by the Governor.
With approval of Parliament.
With the approval of concerned state legislature.
69
Which of the following part of the constitution of India was called as the ‘Political Horoscope’ by KM Munshi?
70
The Constitution of India does not provide any ground for removal of
Governor
Attorney General
Chief Election Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
71
Consider the following statements regarding the functions of the Constitution:
Providing a set of basic rules
Guidelines for the control of rights of citizens
Expression of some shared values
To ensure a just society
To ensure that only good people come to the power
Which of the above statement/s is/are false?
72
Consider the following statements:
Constitution of India empowers the Government to take welfare measures
It is the Government’s responsibility to ensure that the society can express its ambition and aspiration
Which of the above statements is/are true?
73
Consider the following statements:
Any society is recognized as a social unit through the Constitution
The Constitution also gives moral identification to all citizens along with official binding
Which of the above statement/s is/are false?
74
Consider the following statements:
Generally, the Left indicates those who advocate the rights of socially and economically backward sections
People who believe that the Government should not unnecessarily interfere in the economy are called the Right
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
75
According to the Constitution, which of the following is/are the organ/s of the Government?
Legislature
Executive
Judiciary
Which of the above is/are true?
76
Choose the correct statement/s from the following choices:
A model of direct democracy has been adopted in India
The universal adult suffrage has been adopted in India
Choose the answer using the codes given below:
77
Choose the correct statement/s from the following choices:
The basic purpose of democracy is that people participate in the law-making process and govern themselves
In representative democracies, People participate directly
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
78
Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution of India:
8th Schedule of the Constitution has listed 22 languages
The Constitution has listed Hindi as the national language
Which of the above options is/are true?
79
Consider the following statements:
In 1928, few members of the Indian National Congress, led by Motilal Nehru drafted India’s first written Constitution
Framework of the Constitution drafted by Motilal Nehru had features like universal adult franchise, right to freedom and equality, and protection of minorities’ rights
Draft of a Constitution was also presented in the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931
Which of the above statements is/are true?
80
Consider the following statements:
The Constituent Assembly for the purpose of drafting a Constitution had 299 members. It had completed its works by November 26, 1949.
The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950. To remember this day, we celebrate January 26 as the Republic Day
Which of the above statements is/are true?
81
Examine the following statements:
The Constituent Assembly represented the people of India
Members of the Constituent Assembly were directly elected by the people of India
Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by members of the elected provincial assemblies
Which of the above statements is/are true?
82
Consider the following statements regarding the members of the Constituent Assembly:
Many members of the Constituent Assembly were not happened to be members of the Congress
The Constituent Assembly was represented by the different sections of the society
All members of the Constituent Assembly were the followers of the same ideology
Mahatma Gandhi had played a significant role in the Constitution-making process
Choose the correct answer choosing the codes given below:
83
Consider the following statements regarding Dr. Ambedkar:
He favoured discrimination and inequality free India
Ambedkar was a supporter of Mahatma Gandhi and his ideology
Which of the above statements is/are true?
84
The Constitution of India was adopted on which of the following dates?
85
The most suitable explanation of Constitutionalism is
86
In a democracy, the very basic purpose of constitution is
87
The meaning of secularism in Indian context is
State has no official religion.
State provides equal protection to every religion.
All individuals have the right to pursue religion of their choice.
State and religion are integral.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
88
Democracy in Indian context means
Political democracy
Economic democracy
Social democracy
Select the correct answer from the code below:
89
As per Prof. A.V. Dicey, Rule of law means
90
Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric federalism?
91
Which of these provisions of the constitution relates to separation of powers?
Article 50
Article 121
Article 122
Article 211
Article 212
Select the correct answer from the code below:
92
Which of the following is/are unitary or nonfederal features in the Indian Constitution?
Single Constitution
Independent Judiciary
Single Citizenship
Bicameral legislature at the Centre
Select the correct answer using the code below:
93
Consider the following pairs:
Committees of
Constituent Chairman Assembly
1. Committee for negotiations with states
Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Drafting Committee
B. R. Ambedkar
3. Rules of procedure committee
Rajendra Prasad
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
94
Constitution of India is described as a “Living document“ by many Constitutiona lists because
It is flexible to the situations arising with changing times
Right to work, to education and to public assistance.
Living wages and humane conditions of work.
Promotion of international peace and security.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
3
Consider the following statements with respect to DPSPs
They are classified into Gandhian, Socialistic and international in the Constitution.
They are superior to Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
4
Match the following:
Policy of the government
Article of the Constitution
I. Old age pension schemes for people above 65 years.
A. Article 41
II. Adoption of Criminal Procedure Code (1973).
B. Article 50
III. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana.
C. Article 48
IV. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Program.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
5
Concept of social and economic Justice is present in
Preamble
DPSP
Select the correct answer from the code below:
6
Which among the following trends in the context of India represents the implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
Establishment of Planning Commission
Bringing of Tenancy Reforms
Nationalisation of Banks
Conferring constitutional status to PRIs
Choose the correct code(s):
7
What would have been the possible reasons for making DPSPs a tool of moral accountability rather than the legal accountability, at the time of enactment of constitution?
Centre-State Relations in India has not been very satisfactory
States were underdeveloped
Dearth of Financial resources in the country
High diversity of Indian society
Choose the correct code(s):
8
For implementing and giving effect to some fundamental rights and directive principles, certain laws have to be enacted by the Parliament of the country. Such fundamental rights and DPSP include the provisions given in
Article 15
Article 17
Article 23
Article 48
Choose the correct option:
9
Which statement (s) is/are correct?
There is a dominance of civil and political rights in Fundamental Rights
There is a dominance of social and economic rights in Directive Principles
Choose the correct option:
10
The makers of Indian constitution were influenced by different schools of thought which is reflected in various articles of directive principles of state policy. Which of the following are these schools of thought?
Universalism
Socialism
Gandhism
Liberalism
Humanism
Choose the correct statement/s:
11
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State Policy. Under this, the State shall endeavour to –
Promote international peace and security
Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized people with one another;
Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
Choose the correct option:
12
Which of the following provisions are derived from the Constitution of India?
The Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
The state should promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.
Options:
13
Which of the following is/are advocated by both the Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties enumerated in the Constitution?
Fostering of scientific ideas in the society
Protecting and improving the natural environment.
Protecting places and objects associated with the country’s history and heritage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
14
Which of the following Directive Principles were added to the Constitution through amendment?
To secure opportunities for healthy development of Children.
Equal pay for equal work for men and woman.
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
15
Which among the following is the fundamental objective of Directive Principle of State policy?
16
The articles forming the Directive Principles of State Policy reflect the different schools of thought which influenced the makers of Indian constitution. Which of the following are these schools of thought?
Gandhism
Liberalism
Humanism
Intellectualism
Welfarism
Choose the correct statement/s:
17
Which of the following is a part of Directive Principle of State Policy?
18
Which of the following are the federal features of Indian constitution?
Rigid Constitution
Provisions of Article 3
Bicameralism
Integrated Judiciary
19
Match the following:
Source
feature borrowed
I.Irish Constitution
1.Concurrent list.
II.Australian Constitution
2.Directive Principles of State Policy
III.Japanese Constitution
3.procedure for amendment of constitution
IV.South African
4.procedure
Constitution established by law.
Codes:
20
Consider the following with respect to the rights of older persons:
Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act (2007) has been made in view of the provision of Article 41 of the Constitution.
There is a provision of free medical facilities for senior citizens.
There is a penal provision for abandonment of senior citizens.
Choose the correct option:
21
Consider the following regarding Article 41 of the Constitution. It does not include….
22
Which among the following trends in the context of India represents the implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
Establishment of Planning Commission
Bringing of Tenancy Reforms
Nationalisation of Banks
Conferring constitutional status to PRIs
Choose the correct code(s):
23
What would have been the possible reasons for making DPSPs a tool of moral accountability rather than the legal accountability, at the time of enactment of constitution?
Centre-State Relations in India has not been very satisfactory
States were underdeveloped
Dearth of Financial resources in the country
High diversity of Indian society
Choose the correct code(s):
24
Consider the following provisions listed under the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India:
To secure for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests.
To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in case of unemployment.
To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state.
Which of the above provisions signify the Liberal-Intellectual Principles?
25
Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is:
26
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Organisation of village Panchayat.
To promote educational and economic interests of the weaker sections.
Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above are the Socialist Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
27
Which of the following is not a directive principle under Part 4 of the constitution?
Consider the following statements with reference to National Emergency
National emergency can be imposed by the President when the security of India is threatened by war or external aggression.
During the National Emergency, fundamental rights under Articles 19, 20 and 22 are suspended automatically.
President can issue the proclamation of emergency as per the advice of Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
2
During the operation of national emergency under Article 352, Centre become entitled to give executive directions to a state on
3
The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any matter enumerated in the State list under which of the following circumstances?
During National Emergency
During President’s Rule
During Financial Emergency
Choose the correct code(s)
4
When a proclamation of State Emergency (or President’s rule) is in operation:
5
The government declared a state of Emergency on 25 June 1975. In this context, which statement(s) is/are correct?
The government invoked Article 352 of the Constitution.
The government declared that there was a threat of internal disturbance.
The various Fundamental Rights of citizens stood suspended, including the right of citizens to move the Court for restoring their Fundamental Rights.
Choose the correct option:
6
Proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the president at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. But, the president must revoke a proclamation if a resolution of disapproval,
7
The Parliament can extend a proclamation of President’s Rule beyond one year by six months if.
8
Which of the following is/are true for National Emergency?
The President can declare a national emergency only after the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion and not on mere threat of it.
The President can issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and is in operation.
A proclamation of national emergency is applicable to the entire country.
The President can proclaim a national emergency only on the advice of the prime minister.
Options:
9
Consider the following statements regarding financial emergency
There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation
During this period the President can issue directions to reduce the salaries of Supreme Court judges
The President cannot declare financial emergency in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10
Identify the correct statements.
The laws made during a National Emergency become inoperative on the expiration of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
A law made by the Parliament during President’s rule continues to be operative even after the president’s rule.
Select the correct code:
11
National Emergency affects which of the following parts of Constitution?
Fundamental Rights.
Centre-State relations.
Distribution of revenues.
Legislative power between Centre and States.
Tenure of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
12
Consider the following statements regarding the President’s rule in states:
The Presidential proclamation imposing the President’s rule is subject to judicial review.
The President cannot suspend the state assembly prior to the approval of Presidential proclamation by the Parliament.
The court has power to restore the dissolved state legislative assembly if it holds the proclamation to be unconstitutional.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
13
Which of the following statements are correct about the emergency provisions of the Constitution?
During the National Emergency, President can modify the pattern of distribution of financial resources between the union and the states.
Article 19 cannot be suspended during National emergency due to armed rebellion.
President can extend the normal tenure of Lok Sabha by one year at a time during national emergency.
Supreme Court interferes with the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court during State Emergency under article 356.
Codes:
14
While a Proclamation of Financial Emergency [Art. 360(1)] is made by the President it shall be competent for the Union to give directions to the states…
To reduce the salaries and allowances of all persons serving in connection with the affairs of the state, including High Court Judges.
To reserve for the consideration of the President all money and financial Bills, after they are passed by the Legislature of the state.
With regard to the above statements which of the following is/are true?
15
When a proclamation of State Emergency (or President’s rule) is in operation:
16
Assertion (A): If President feels satisfied that the security of India or any part of it is threatened or there is an imminent danger of such threat by war or external aggression or by armed rebellion he can proclaim an emergency under article 356.
Reason (R): On receiving report from the Governor of the State, and he/she feels that it is not possible to carry on the government of the state according to the provision of the Constitution, the President under article 356-A(1) impose the President rule in the State.
Choose the Correct option:
17
Emergency Provisions in part XVIII of the Constitution deal with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace, security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof. The provisions under the National Emergency include:
The President can declare such an emergency if the Cabinet recommends in oral for doing so.
The proclamation of emergency has to be approved by both the Houses of Parliament by absolute majority of the total membership of the Houses as well as 2/3 majority of members present and voting within one month.
In case the Lok Sabha stands dissolved at the time of proclamation of emergency or is not in session, it has to be approved by the Rajya Sabha within one month and later on by the Lok Sabha also within fifteen days of the start of its next session.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
18
Consider the following statements regarding the effects of Emergency on the Fundamental Rights.
The rights provided by Art.19, would be non existent against the state during emergency.
Under Art. 359, the right to move to the Court for the enforcement of the rights cannot be suspended.
Art. 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during Emergency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
19
Consider the following statements-
If President rule is imposed in any state then the governor of the state may present the annual financial Budget of the state under article 356(1)A.
In President Rule, all executive power of the state goes in to the hand of the governor.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
20
Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency and President’s Rule:
There is no maximum period prescribed for the operation of National Emergency whereas a President’s rule can be in operation for 3 years.
Resolution for their continuance must be passed by a special majority.
Lok Sabha can pass a resolution for their revocation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21
Which of the following statements is/are true?
Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
A Proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
Which of the above statements is/are wrong?
22
Which of the following committees on centre-state relations, have dealt with President Rule (Article 356)?
Sarkaria Commission
P V Rajamannar Committee
Choose the correct option:
23
Which of the following article related to the financial emergency in India?
24
Based on report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre- state Relations, the Supreme Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper. Which of the following situations for imposition of President rule is proper in the light of above mentioned statement are correct?
The President Rule may be imposed, where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, in other words in the condition of a hung assembly.
The President Rule may be imposed, where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government.
The President Rule may be imposed due to maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.
Codes:
25
Which of the following is true about the National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352 emergency provisions contained in the Constitution of India?
The President can proclaim a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
The President can proclaim a national emergency only after or at the time of actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
The President can issue different proclamations on the grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation.
The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the prime minister.
Choose the correct option:
26
Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national emergency by the President?
The President can issue directives to the state executive.
The President can extend the normal tenure of the Lok sabha.
The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights.
The President can modify the distribution pattern of financial resources between centre and states.
Codes:
27
Consider the following statements:
Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of Internal Emergency.
Article 358 automatically suspends Fundamental Rights under article 19 as soon as the emergency is declared.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
28
The Emergency provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively. This includes suspension of some guaranteed fundamental rights as well. In this context, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Under Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency (war, external aggression or armed rebellion) is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
Under Article 359, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Article 359 does not automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights.
29
Which of the following is not the correct difference between Martial Law and National Emergency?
Martial law suspends the government and ordinary law whereas National emergency does not.
Martial law is implicit whereas national emergency is explicit.
Codes:
30
Which of the following is/are impact(s) of the national emergency, as incorporated in Article 352 of the constitution.
State governments are suspended and brought under Central Control.
Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on the subjects enumerated in state list.
The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the President of India on the matter of
The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the States, and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds.
The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the States by the Centre out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
Expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
2
Consider the following statements with regards to State Finance Commission:
It determines the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or appropriated by the Panchayat.
It determines the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.
Its recommendations are binding on the State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
3
Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission submits its report to the Parliament.
The recommendations of the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and are not binding on the government.
Which of the following is TRUE?
4
Which of the following explains the utility of Finance Commission in India?
For reinforcing federal character of Indian Constitution
States of India do not stand on equal footage
Tax system in India is not rationalized
Which of the statements given above is/are TRUE?
5
What are the functions of the State Finance Commission?
Distributes between the State and Panchayats, the net proceeds of taxes, duties and tolls levied by the state.
Gives the grant-in-aids to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the India.
Recommends for the measures needed to improve the financial position of the state.
Any other matter referred to it by the governor in the interest of sound finance of the Panchayats.
Choose the correct statements from the above:
6
The Finance Commission makes recommendations with respect to which of the following matters?
Distribution of taxes between the centre and the states.
Expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India.
Grants-in-aid to the states by the centre.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
7
The prime function of FINANCE COMMISSION OF INDIA is to
8
Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission of India is a quasi judicial body.
It is appointed by the Parliament of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
9
Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission and select the correct ones:
The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
The chairman should be a person having specialised knowledge of Finance and the members should have experience in public affairs.
Finance Commission also makes recommendations to the President on the matters relating to the principles that should govern the grant-in-aid to the states by the centre.
Recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding on the government.
Codes:
10
Which of the given statements is NOT correct?
11
Consider the following statements:
The Finance Commission submits its report to the Parliament.
The recommendations of the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and are not binding on the government.
Which of the following is TRUE?
12
Consider the following statement-
Share of revenue between the state and local bodies are based upon the principle given by the Central Finance Commission.
Central Finance commission is constituted by the President of India under Article 281.
Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?
13
Which of the following explains the utility of Finance Commission in India?
For reinforcing federal character of Indian Constitution
States of India do not stand on equal footage
Tax system in India is not rationalized
Which of the statements given above is/are TRUE?
14
Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission:
According to Article 280, Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President.
Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be required for appointment as members of the Commission.
Finance Commission recommends principles which govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
15
Which of the following is recommended by 14th Finance Commission?
Tax devolution should be the primary route for transfer of resources to the States
It has recommended distribution of grants to States for local bodies using 2011 population data.
For understanding the States’ needs, the Plan and non-Plan distinction should be ignored.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
16
Which of the following recommendation(s) is/are given by Fourteenth Finance Commission?
3% Fiscal Deficit to be maintained during the period 2016-2020.
Vertical tax devolution to the States to be increased from 32% to 42%.
Considering new component of Demogra-phic Change (as per census 2011) to decide horizontal tax distribution among States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
17
Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission and find out the incorrect-
Consider the following regarding Fundamental Duties.
These are introduced in the constitution upon the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee
All the eleven FDs at present are recommendations of the above committee
Duty to pay taxes is one of the fundamental duties.
Choose the correct code(s)
2
Consider the given statements.
Article 51-A protect the dignity of women by stating that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women, and also makes it the duty of every citizen of India to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
The ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
3
Which of the following are the fundamental duties of the Indian citizens?
to protect and improve the natural environment
to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
to promote national peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations.
to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
Options:
4
Consider the following regarding Fundamental Duties:
These are introduced in the constitution upon the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee
All the eleven FDs at present are recommendations of the above committee
Duty to pay taxes is one of the fundamental duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
5
Universal declarations of Human rights refers to Fundamental duties of citizens, Article 51A brings the Indian Constitution into conformity with such treaties. Which of these statement(s) is/are true regarding Fundamental Duties?
To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
To uphold and protect the sovereign and secular character of India.
Select the correct the answer using the code given below.
6
Consider the following about the fundamental duties and select the correct answer?
The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Fundamental duties under article 51 A are more in the nature of moral obligations of citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. They cannot be enforced legally.
Government is now considering adding ‘paying taxes’ for nation building as another fundamental duty.
Codes:
7
According to Article 51A, which of the following are the Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizen?
To help poor and weaker section of the society
To abide by the Constitution.
To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy.
Select the correct answer from the following codes:
8
Fundamental duties mentioned in Indian Constitution are–
Which of these writs can be issued both against public and private person?
Habeas Corpus
Mandamus
Certiorari
Prohibition
Select the correct answer from the code below:
2
Fundamental Rights are fundamental because
3
Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of
Religion
Race
Caste
Sex
Place of birth
Descent
Residence
Select the correct answer from the code below:
4
State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of rights provided in Article 19 only on the grounds of
Sovereignty and integrity of India
Security of the state
Public order
Friendly relations with neighbor states
Decency or morality
Contempt of court
Defamation
Incitement of offence
Select the correct answer from the code below:
5
Which of the following constitute limitation on religious freedom provided in Article 25 of the Constitution?
Public order, morality and health.
Other provisions of Part-III of the constitution.
Matters related with Social Reforms.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
6
Which of the cases are related to subject matter of Article 29 and 30
St. Stephens college vs. University of Delhi.
TMA Pai foundations and Others vs. State of Karnataka.
Islamic academy of Education vs. State of Karnataka.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
7
Consider the following with respect to Fundamental Rights:
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is available to both citizens and non citizens.
Right to elementary education is available to all the people whether citizens or foreigners from any country.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
8
Which of the following is true with regards to Fundamental Rights in democratic form of polity?
9
Which of the following Fundamental Rights can be imposed against private individuals as well?
10
Consider the following about Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India
They are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy
They are absolute rights available to citizens of India
They can be curtailed or repealed by the parliament through a constitutional amendment act.
Choose the correct code(s)
11
Why fundamental rights are ‘Fundamental’ in nature.
12
Consider the following statements:
Writs under article 32 can be enforced for violation of both fundamental as well as other statutory rights of citizens
Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is both original and exclusive in enforcing Fundamental Rights
Choose the correct code(s)
13
The Fundamental Rights do not prohibit the State from making special provisions in the interest of
Women & children
Socially backward classes
Educationally backward classes
14
Reasonable restrictions can be imposed by the ‘State” on the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression on which of the following grounds
Economic security
decency or morality
contempt of court
defamation or incitement to on offence
Choose the correct option:
15
Which writ is issued by the higher courts to lower courts or tribunals to transmit to them the record of proceedings pending with them for scrutiny and if necessary for quashing the same?
16
Which of the following statement are true about Article 32?
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 “the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it”.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Article 32 can be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation
The Parliament may, by law, empower any other court without prejudice to the powers of the Supreme Court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court.
Choose the correct option:
17
Which fundamental rights are available only to the citizens of India?
Article 14
Article 15
Article 25
Article 29
Choose the correct option:
18
The Fundamental Rights are available against the excesses of “the State” as defined in Article 12, the term "state" includes:
Executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
Judicial branch of the Union government
Municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts
Private persons
Choose the correct option:
19
Under Article 20, which among the following statements is incorrect?
20
What is true about right to constitutional Remedies?
It gives a citizen the right to approach a High Court or the Supreme Court to get any of the fundamental rights restored in case of its violation.
The Supreme Court has ruled that where relief through High Court is available, the party should first move the high court.
Choose the correct option:
21
Which statement(s) is /are correct about Fundamental Rights?
Fundamental Rights are given to citizens as well as aliens.
All the Fundamental Rights can be suspended by Presidential Proclamation during the emergency.
Fundamental Rights can be waived off by an individual
Directive Principles, in general, cannot override the expressed provisions of Fundamental Rights
Choose the correct option:
22
Which among the following rights are implicit under Art 19?
Right against tapping of telephonic conversation
Right to commercial advertisement
Furling of National Flag
Right to information
Rights to strike
Choose the correct option:
23
Which of the following are true for co-operative societies?
The right to form co-operative societies is fundamental right.
The promotion of co-operative societies is enshrined in Directive Principles of State Policy.
Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for the incorporation of co-operative societies.
Options:
24
Under Article 21 of Indian Constitution,
The Supreme Court has ruled that the protection under Article 21 should be available against arbitrary executive action but not legislative action.
The Supreme Court has affirmed the right of prisoner to have necessities of life
The fundamental right to life or personal liberty has been provided against state only.
Options:
25
Consider the given statement(s):
The first part of Article 22 do not cover arrest under the orders of a court, civil arrest, arrest on failure to pay the income tax, and deportation of an alien.
The legislative power with regard to preventive detention is vested only in the Parliament.
Under Article 22 (3), provisions of Article 22 (1) and Article 22 (2) shall not apply to an enemy alien.
Options:
26
Which of the following rights available under the Indian Constitution is/are not enjoyed by a foreigner residing in India?
Right to Protection in respect of Conviction for offences
Right to Freedom of profession
Right to Education
Right to Information
Select the correct code:
27
Consider the following statements regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act on co-operative societies
The right to form co-operative societies is a Fundamental Right under Right to Freedom.
Promotion of co-operative societies is a Directive Principle of State Policy.
The Constitution provides for reservation for Scheduled Castes and women on co-operative society boards.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
28
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on grounds of
Sovereignty of India
Integrity of India
Public order
Morality
Select the correct code:
29
Identify the correct statements.
The political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Article 30 is confined only to minorities.
Select the correct code:
30
Which of the following is/are true for the ex-post-facto law under the Article 20 of the Constitution?
The enactment of such a law is prohibited for criminal laws and civil laws.
The provision prohibits the trial as well as conviction under criminal law.
The protection under this provision cannot be claimed in case of preventive detention or demanding security from a person.
31
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
against a private individual or body
to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force
against an inferior court, a tribunal or government
to enforce a contractual obligation
Select the correct code:
32
Which of the following is/are true for ‘procedure established by law’ under Article 21 of the Constitution?
The right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
The protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action.
Select the correct code:
33
The writ of certiorari could be issued against
Judicial and quasi-judicial authorities
Administrative authories
Legislative bodies
Private individuals
Select the correct code:
34
The Part III of the Constitution carries two provisions which provide for the guaranteed right to compensation in case of
35
Which of the following are constitutionally saved from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 and Article 19?
Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations.
Amalgamation of corporations.
Acquisition of estates and related rights by the State.
Taking over the management of properties by the State.
Select the correct code:
36
When a martial law is imposed in any area within the territory of India, the Parliament cannot make laws in which of the following matters?
37
Which of the following is/are true for suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency?
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are suspended for the entire duration of Emergency.
The suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21) may extend to the entire country or a part of it.
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are suspended operates only in case of External Emergency.
Select the correct code:
38
Which of the following would fall under the definition of state as defined in Article 12 of the constitution?
National Human Rights Commission
Supreme Court
Steel Authority of India
The National Council Of Educational Research and Training.
Select the correct using the code given below:
39
Forcible conversions impinge upon which of the following rights guaranteed under Article 25 of the constitution?
40
Which of the following is true regarding Article 16?
Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state.
Religious and denominational institutions can reserve the employment in them for those professing the religion.
It provides for reservation in matters of promotion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
41
The Constitution of India provided for 7 fundamental rights, which of the following is true for RIGHT TO FREEDOM OF RELIGION ?
42
Consider the following regarding right to constituional remedies and identify which of the following is true?
Right to move SC by appropriate proceeding for enforcement of the fundamental right is guaranteed.
It can be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation.
Jurisdiction of SC is original and exclusive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
43
Consider the following statements about WRIT OF PROHIBITION and identify which of the statements is/are true?
It refers to the order a court issues to a lower court or semi judicial body to transfer the case to another court of semi judicial body.
Prohibition commands inactivity.
It is available against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
Can be used against public official who is not vested with judicial function.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
44
Article 13 of the constitution of India declares that all laws inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be null and void. With reference to this which among the following is/are true?
The power to declare a “Law” void and constitutional vests only with the Supreme Court.
The term law in the above article includes only the law made by state legislatures and the ordinances issued either by the President or the state governors.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
45
Consider the following with respect to “Environmental Rights in India”
Clauses dealing with environment protection are found in Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties.
The Constitution of India originally adopted, did not contain any direct and specific provision regarding the protection of natural environment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
46
Which of the following writ is associated with the “legality of the claim of a person to a public office”?
The writ of Habeas Corpus.
The writ of Mandamus.
The writ of Prohibition.
The writ of Certiorari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
47
Simple majority of both the Houses of Parliament is used to amend which of the following:
Delimitation of the constituencies.
Extent of the executive power of the Union and States.
Use of official language.
Election to the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
48
Match the following concepts with appropriate instances:
I. Equality of opportunity
(i) Providing special incentives for women welfare
II. Affirmative action
(ii) Every adult citizen has right to vote
III. Equal Rights
(iii) Every child has right to education
49
The Fundamental Rights contain special provisions in the interest of
Women & children
Socially backward classes
Educationally backward classes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
50
Which of the following parts of the Constitution is/are applicable to foreign nationals?
Fundamental Duties
Right to freedom of Speech
Right to equality
Protection in respect of conviction for offences
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
51
Consider the following statements:
Writs under article 32 can be enforced for violation of both fundamental as well as other statutory rights of citizens
Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is both original and exclusive in enforcing Fundamental Rights
Choose the correct code:
52
Consider the following about Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India:
They are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy.
They are absolute rights available to citizens of India.
They can be curtailed or repealed by the parliament through a constitutional amendment act.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
53
Match List I and List II:
List I (Writ)
List II (Purpose)
A.Writ of Mandamus
1.Prohibition of an action
B.Writ of Injunction
2.Direction to an official for the performance of a duty
C.Writ of Certiorari
3.Trial of the right to an executive office
D.Writ of Quo Warranto jurisdiction
4.Transferring a case from lower court to a court of higher
Code:
54
Under Consumer Protection Act 1986, which one is not the right of the consumer?
55
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states “Equality before law and equal protection of law”. Read the following statements with respect to the provision of “Equal Protection of Law”?
The concept is of British origin.
It states - equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
It denotes any form of discrimination between peoples is prohibited irrespective of their caste, creed, class, etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
56
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the rights of minorities to establish and administer their own educational institutions?
To choose its governing body in whom the founder of the institute have faith and confidence to manage the affairs of the institution.
To appoint teaching staff and also non-teaching staff, and to take action if there is dereliction of duty on the part of the employees.
To admit eligible students of their choice and to set up a reasonable fee structure.
To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution.
Codes:
57
According to the Right to Information Act 2005, there is a provision under which the Act is not applicable to certain organisations specified in the second schedule of the act. These organisations could be...
58
Which of the following Fundamental Rights can be imposed against private individuals as well?
59
Freedom of Speech and Expression does not include:
Right to propagate views of others.
Right to tap telephonic conversation.
Right to bandh.
Freedom of silence.
Codes:
60
Which of the following statements regarding fundamental rights is/are correct?
Most of the fundamental rights are directly enforceable, while a few of them can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect to them.
Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals.
They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
Codes:
61
Which of the following statements is are wrong?
Article 18 prohibits the State from conferring military or academic distinction on anybody, whether a citizen or a foreigner.
Under Article 18, a foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under the State cannot accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of the President.
Codes:
62
Consider the following about Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India
They are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy
They are absolute rights available to citizens of India
They can be curtailed or repealed by the parliament through a constitutional amendment act.
Choose the correct code(s)
63
The Fundamental Rights do not prohibit the State from making special provisions in the interest of
Women and children
Socially backward classes
Educationally backward classes
Choose the option:
64
Article 30 of the Constitution grants rights to minorities to establish and administer educational institutes. Which of the following statements regarding Minority educational institutes is/are correct?
The right under Article 30 includes the right of a minority to impart education to its children in its own language.
The institutions that seek only recognition or recognition as well as aid from the State are subject to the regulatory power of the state with regard to syllabus prescription, employment of teaching staff, etc.
Only the institutions that neither seek recog-nition nor aid from the State are free to administer their affairs but are subject to operation of general laws like contract law, labour law, etc.
Codes:
65
Article 21 has received liberal interpretation from time to time after the decision of the Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India. It now includes:
Right to environment, free of danger of disease and infection.
Right to go abroad.
Right against custodial death.
Right against solitary confinement.
Which of the above stated interpretations are correct?
66
Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Rights (FRs):
The right to move Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the FRs is guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of FRs as well as for any other purpose.
The territorial jurisdiction of Supreme Court for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of High Courts.
Which of the above statements are correct?
67
Match the following:
List-I
List-II
I.Habeas Corpus
1.Non-performance of public Duty.
II.Mandamus
2.Unlawful arrest and detention.
III.Quo Warranto
3.Exercise of power without Jurisdiction.
IV.Certiorari natural
4.Violation of justice.
Codes:
68
Consider the following statements about Fundamental Rights:
The right to move Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed by the constitution.
Both Supreme Court and High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other purpose.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
69
In which of the following conditions a writ of Habeas corpus can be issued?
When a person is detained and not produced before the Magistrate within 24 hours.
When a person is arrested without any violation of any law.
When a person is arrested under a law which is unconstitutional.
When detention is done to harm the person or is malafide.
Codes:
70
Consider the following statements:
In case of enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original and exclusive.
Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.
Quo-Warranto can be issued to any public office, ministerial office and private office to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person to the office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
71
Which of the following rights are declared by Indian Judiciary as part of Article 21?
Right to free education upto 14 years of age.
Right to speedy trial
Right to Information
Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity.
72
Which of the below mentioned rights if violated comes under the writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court under Article 32?
Right to privacy
Right to vote
Right to propagation of religion
Free trade and commerce throughout India
Which of the provision given above comes under Constitutional remedies?
73
Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available to Indian citizens but not to foreign citizens?
1.Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
2.Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
3.Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
4.Right to elementary education.
Select the correct codes:
74
In one of its judgements, the Supreme Court held that to force an individual to undergo polygraph, brain mapping and narco-analysis tests are violation of----------- the constitution.
75
Regarding the Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India:
Any executive order which violates the fundamental Rights can be declared void by any court in India.
Restriction on the Religion can be imposed on the ground of Public order, morality and health.
The Indian constitution has not guaranteed Rights of Property to its citizens.
The incorrect statement(s) is/are:
76
Which of the following rights are declared by the Judiciary as part of Article 21?
Right to privacy.
Right to health.
Right against bonded labour.
Right to information.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
77
In which of the following case Supreme court ruled for the first time that the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature?
78
Originally, Article 19 contained seven rights. But, the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 because it
79
Which of the following is not included in Art. 19 of constitution of India, pertaining to Right to freedom?
80
Consider the following statements in the context of minority provisions in Constitution of India:
Constitution of India refers three types of minorities namely Religion, Ethnicity and Language.
President may direct state at substantial situation that minority language in a state to recognize officially.
Minorities have Fundamental Rights to establish educational institution to protect their identity.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?
81
According to B R Ambedkar, Which of the following right was known as heart and soul of Indian constitution?
82
Which of the following provisions were included in the constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act?
Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Art 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during National Emergency.
Written recommendation of cabinet mandatory for president to declare National Emergency.
Advice of the cabinet is not binding on the president.
Right to property became a legal right.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
83
In the context of ongoing debate about the provision of safe drinking water in the country. Consider the following statement about the Right to Water and select the correct answer:
The right to clean and safe drinking water and sanitation has been explicitly provided in the Constitution of India.
UN Human Rights Council, in 2010, declared that the right to water and sanitation is a human right, equal to all other human rights, which implies that it is justiciable and enforceable.
Supreme Court in Narmada Bachao Andolan vs Union of India (2000) case had said that “water is the basic need for the survival of human beings and is part of the right to life and human rights as enshrined in Article 21.
Codes:
84
Which of the following parts of the Constitution is/are applicable to foreign nationals?
Fundamental Duties
Right to freedom and Speech
Right to equality
Choose the correct code(s)
85
Consider the following statements regarding the Rights granted by the Constitution:
Article 21 of the Constitution gives the Right to Life
Life and liberty of any people could be taken away only through a rational and just legal process
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
86
Which of the following rights has/has been included in the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution?
Right against Exploitation
Cultural and Educational Rights
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Right to Freedom
Right to Freedom of Religion
Right to Property
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
87
Which of the following rights are the parts of Right to Freedom?
Freedom of speech and expression
Freedom of assembly without arms
Freedom of movement throughout the territory of the country
Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country of India and the freedom to practice any profession
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
88
Which of the following has the right to interpret the Constitution?
89
Consider the following statements regarding the Freedom of Speech & Expression:
Under the Freedom of Speech & Expression, citizens have the right to speak, write and express themselves through the different form of arts
Letting others speak, hold discussion and establish dialogue independently develops everybody's personality and ideology
Which of the above statements is/are true?
90
Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights:
Citizens don't have the right to assemble peacefully, hold meeting, and take out procession on any matter
If found guilty of violating any law, citizens could be deprived of their right to life and personal freedom
Which of the above statements is/are true?
91
Under the Fundamental Rights, the Constitution provides what types of rights to the minorities?
Educational Rights
Political Rights
Cultural Rights
Economic Rights
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
92
Which of the following Rights had been described by B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
93
Consider the following statements:
Fundamental Rights are above any activities and decisions taken by the Legislature, the Executive and the Government
Only the Supreme Court of India has the right to give order, pronounce judgment and issue writ regarding the Fundamental Rights
Which of the above statements is/are true?
94
Match the following:
List-I
List-II
(i) Habeas Corpus
1. Non-performance of public Duty.
(ii) Mandamus
2. Unlawful arrest and detention.
(iii) Quo Warranto
3. Exercise of power without Jurisdiction.
(iv) Certiorari
4. Violation of natural justice.
Codes:
95
Which of these writs can be issued both against public and private person?
Habeas Corpus
Mandamus
Certiorari
Prohibition
Select the correct answer from the code below:
96
Fundamental Rights are fundamental because
97
Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of
Religion
Race
Caste
Sex
Place of birth
Descent
Residence
Select the correct answer from the code below:
98
State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of rights provided in Article 19 only on the grounds of
Sovereignty and integrity of India
Security of the state
Public order
Friendly relations with neighbor states
Decency or morality
Contempt of court
Defamation
Incitement of offence
Select the correct answer from the code below:
99
Which of the following constitute limitation on religious freedom provided in Article 25 of the Constitution?
Public order, morality and health.
Other provisions of Part-III of the constitution.
Matters related with Social Reforms.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
100
Which of the cases are related to subject matter of Article 29 and 30
St. Stephens college vs. University of Delhi.
TMA Pai foundations and Others vs. State of Karnataka.
Islamic academy of Education vs. State of Karnataka.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
101
Consider the following with respect to Fundamental Rights:
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is available to both citizens and non citizens.
Right to elementary education is available to all the people whether citizens or foreigners from any country.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
102
Which of the following is true with regards to Fundamental Rights in democratic form of polity?
103
Which of the following Fundamental Rights can be imposed against private individuals as well?
104
Consider the following about Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India
They are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy
They are absolute rights available to citizens of India
They can be curtailed or repealed by the parliament through a constitutional amendment act.
Choose the correct code(s)
105
Why fundamental rights are ‘Fundamental’ in nature.
106
Consider the following statements:
Writs under article 32 can be enforced for violation of both fundamental as well as other statutory rights of citizens
Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is both original and exclusive in enforcing Fundamental Rights
Choose the correct code(s)
107
The Fundamental Rights do not prohibit the State from making special provisions in the interest of
Women & children
Socially backward classes
Educationally backward classes
108
Reasonable restrictions can be imposed by the ‘State” on the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression on which of the following grounds
Economic security
decency or morality
contempt of court
defamation or incitement to on offence
Choose the correct option:
109
Which writ is issued by the higher courts to lower courts or tribunals to transmit to them the record of proceedings pending with them for scrutiny and if necessary for quashing the same?
110
Which of the following statement are true about Article 32?
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 “the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it”.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Article 32 can be invoked to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation
The Parliament may, by law, empower any other court without prejudice to the powers of the Supreme Court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court.
Choose the correct option:
111
Which fundamental rights are available only to the citizens of India?
Article 14
Article 15
Article 25
Article 29
Choose the correct option:
112
The Fundamental Rights are available against the excesses of “the State” as defined in Article 12, the term "state" includes:
Executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
Judicial branch of the Union government
Municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts
Private persons
Choose the correct option:
113
Under Article 20, which among the following statements is incorrect?
114
What is true about right to constitutional Remedies?
It gives a citizen the right to approach a High Court or the Supreme Court to get any of the fundamental rights restored in case of its violation.
The Supreme Court has ruled that where relief through High Court is available, the party should first move the high court.
Choose the correct option:
115
Which statement(s) is /are correct about Fundamental Rights?
Fundamental Rights are given to citizens as well as aliens.
All the Fundamental Rights can be suspended by Presidential Proclamation during the emergency.
Fundamental Rights can be waived off by an individual
Directive Principles, in general, cannot override the expressed provisions of Fundamental Rights
Choose the correct option:
116
Which among the following rights are implicit under Art 19?
Right against tapping of telephonic conversation
Right to commercial advertisement
Furling of National Flag
Right to information
Rights to strike
Choose the correct option:
117
Which of the following are true for co-operative societies?
The right to form co-operative societies is fundamental right.
The promotion of co-operative societies is enshrined in Directive Principles of State Policy.
Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for the incorporation of co-operative societies.
Options:
118
Under Article 21 of Indian Constitution,
The Supreme Court has ruled that the protection under Article 21 should be available against arbitrary executive action but not legislative action.
The Supreme Court has affirmed the right of prisoner to have necessities of life
The fundamental right to life or personal liberty has been provided against state only.
Options:
119
Consider the given statement(s):
The first part of Article 22 do not cover arrest under the orders of a court, civil arrest, arrest on failure to pay the income tax, and deportation of an alien.
The legislative power with regard to preventive detention is vested only in the Parliament.
Under Article 22 (3), provisions of Article 22 (1) and Article 22 (2) shall not apply to an enemy alien.
Options:
120
Which of the following rights available under the Indian Constitution is/are not enjoyed by a foreigner residing in India?
Right to Protection in respect of Conviction for offences
Right to Freedom of profession
Right to Education
Right to Information
Select the correct code:
121
Consider the following statements regarding the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act on co-operative societies
The right to form co-operative societies is a Fundamental Right under Right to Freedom.
Promotion of co-operative societies is a Directive Principle of State Policy.
The Constitution provides for reservation for Scheduled Castes and women on co-operative society boards.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
122
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on grounds of
Sovereignty of India
Integrity of India
Public order
Morality
Select the correct code:
123
Identify the correct statements.
The political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Article 30 is confined only to minorities.
Select the correct code:
124
Which of the following is/are true for the ex-post-facto law under the Article 20 of the Constitution?
The enactment of such a law is prohibited for criminal laws and civil laws.
The provision prohibits the trial as well as conviction under criminal law.
The protection under this provision cannot be claimed in case of preventive detention or demanding security from a person.
125
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
against a private individual or body
to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force
against an inferior court, a tribunal or government
to enforce a contractual obligation
Select the correct code:
126
Which of the following is/are true for ‘procedure established by law’ under Article 21 of the Constitution?
The right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
The protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action.
Select the correct code:
127
The writ of certiorari could be issued against
Judicial and quasi-judicial authorities
Administrative authories
Legislative bodies
Private individuals
Select the correct code:
128
The Part III of the Constitution carries two provisions which provide for the guaranteed right to compensation in case of
129
Which of the following are constitutionally saved from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 and Article 19?
Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of corporations.
Amalgamation of corporations.
Acquisition of estates and related rights by the State.
Taking over the management of properties by the State.
Select the correct code:
130
When a martial law is imposed in any area within the territory of India, the Parliament cannot make laws in which of the following matters?
131
Which of the following is/are true for suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency?
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are suspended for the entire duration of Emergency.
The suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21) may extend to the entire country or a part of it.
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are suspended operates only in case of External Emergency.
With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC members are charged upon consolidated fund of India.
The UPSC chairman can be removed on the grounds and in the manner similar to the judge of Supreme Court.
The chairman or a member of UPSC is not eligible for second term.
Member of the UPSC cannot seek any employment under the government after expiry of the tenure.
Select the correct answer from the code below:
2
Chairman and Members of State Administrative Tribunals are appointed by
3
Consider the following statements:
Tribunals under Article 323A and 323B can be established only by the Parliament.
Under Article 323A hierarchy of tribunals can be established whereas there is no such question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323B.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
4
Which of the following is correct regarding Central Vigilance Commission?
5
Consider the following statements with respect to Chairman of State Public Service Commission:
Chairman of State Public Service Commission is appointed and removed by Governor of the State.
Chairman of State Public Service Commission hold office for the term of five year or until they attain the age of sixty two years.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
6
Consider the following statement(s):
Law Commission of India is a constitutional body
The first Law commission of Independent India was established is 1955 and usually a law commission is constituted for a term of 5 years.
At present, nineteenth Law Commission is functioning under the chairmanship of justice P. V. Reddy.
The Commission can take up matters suo-moto for discussion and submit recom-mendations.
The CORRECT statement(s) is/are:
7
Consider the following statements:
To be the Chairman of UPSC, the person should necessarily be a member of UPSC before becoming so.
UPSC members can be removed by the President on the report of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?
8
Which of the following can provide for the appointment of Joint Public Service Commission
9
Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT?
10
The Constitution makes it obligatory for the central government to constitute a Public Service Commission. Consider the given statements.
The Constitution specifies the qualifications, strength and tenure of the members of the Commission.
The Constitution says that one-half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least 10 years either under the Government of India or under the government of state.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
11
Which of the following is true for Central Information Commission?
The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and maximum ten Information Commissioners.
The Information Commissioners are appointed by the president on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government, State Government and the Union Territories.
The CIC and Information Commissioners should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.
Options:
12
Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission.
It is a constitutional body
It is chaired by a retired Chief Justice of India
Chairman of the National Commission for Backward Classes is an ex-officio member
Select the correct code:
13
Consider the following statements regarding Joint State Public Service Commission?
It is not a constitutional body
JSPSC presents its annual performance report to the President
The number of members and their service conditions are determined by the President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
14
Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance Commission?
CVC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
CVC is appointed on the recommendation of a three member committee consisting of Prime Minister, Union law minister and the Leader of Opposition.
If he is convicted of an offence, the President can remove him from the office only after an enquiry by the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
15
Which of the following statement is incorrect in terms of functions of the Public Service Commission?
To conduct examinations for the appointment to the services of the State and Union.
To advice on any matters referred to them and on any other matter which the President or the Governor of a state may refer to the appropriate commission.
To give directions to the Home Ministry regarding the appointment of the candidates.
Select the correct code:
16
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
17
The committee for recommending the chairman and members of National Human Rights Commission consists of
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Union Law Minister
Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha
18
Consider the following statements about National Commission of Scheduled Castes:
It is a non-constitutional body.
Its Chairman is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
It also safeguards the rights of Anglo-Indian Community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
19
Consider the following with respect to the State Public Service Commission (SPSC):
The governor can remove its Chairman on grounds of proved misbehavior.
The Chairman of SPSC on ceasing to hold office is not eligible for any further employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
20
Consider the following about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
It is a Constitutional body.
The Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India.
Its recommendations are binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21
The Manner of removal of which of the following is same as that of a Supreme Court Judge?
Chairman, UPSC
Chief Election Commissioner
Chairman, CVC
High Court Judge
CAG
Chairman, NHRC
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
22
Consider the following statements:
Members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed and removed by the Governor of the respective state.
The Governor determines the conditions of service of the chairman and members of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
23
Which of the following bodies or authority is/are part of the Constitution of India?
Finance Commission
NITI Ayog
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Advocate General of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
24
The Law Commission of India submits its reports to
25
Consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission: